PHERETIMA - EXCRETORY AND NERVOUS SYSTEM PRACTICE BITS
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AVES - ASSIGNMENT
aves.pdf | |
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assignmnt.pdf | |
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ASSIGNMENT
1. Wrong statement about the members of a species
1. Sharing common gene pool and same ecological niche 2. Showing similarity in the karyotype
3. Interbreeding freely and producing for the offspring 4. Having dissimilar structure and functional characteristics
2. Author of “Systema Naturae’ is
1. Linnaeus 2. Mayr 3. John Ray 4. Dobzhansky
3. The dynamic nature of species became popularized after the publication of
1. Linnaeus Systema Naturae 2. Darwin’s Origin of species
3. Lyell’s Principles of Geology 4. Mathus On the principles of population
4. Members of a species show
1. preferential mating 2. Random mating 3. Non-assrtative mating 4. out crossing
5. “Species” means
1. Appearance 2. Arrangement 3.Kind 4. Both 1 and 3
6. Protostomes without body cavity are
1. Annelids 2. Nematodes 3. Echinoderms 4. Platyhelminths
7. Five-kingdom classification of all living organisms was proposed by
1.Whittaker 2. Lamarck 3. Bateson 4. Herbert spencer
8. A: Species is dynamic
R: No new species are formed in course of time
1) Both A & R are true and R explains A 2) Both A & R are true & R does not explains A
3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is tru
9. Statement (S): Species are group of potentially inter-breeding natural populations that are isolated from other such groups
Reason (R): Reproductive isolation brings about distinctive morphological characters
1)Both (S) and (R) are true & (R) is correct explanation to (S) 2) Only (S) is true, (R) is not true
3) Both (S) and (R) are not true 4) Both (S)&(R) are true & R does not explains (S)
10. (A) : Lateral hearts in 12th and 13th segments of Pheretima are called latero oesophageal hearts
(R) : They connect dorsal blood vessel and latero oesophageal blood vessel to ventral blood vessel
1) Both A & R are true and R explains A 2) Both A & R are true & R does not explains A
3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is true
11. (A) : Blood in dorsointestinal blood vessels contains more nutrients in Pheretima
(R) : In the intestinal region of Pheretima each segment contains two pairs of dorsontestinal blood vessels
1) Both A & R are true and R explains A 2) Both A & R are true & R does not explains A
3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is true
12. Arrange the following parts in ascending order based on total number
A. Anterior loops B. Commissurals C. Ventro-intestinals D. Dorso-intestinals E. Ring vessels
1. A-E-C-B-D 2. A-E-C-D-B 3. A-E-B-C-D 4. E-A-B-D-C
13. Shortest longitudinal blood vessel in Pheretima is
1. Supra oesophageal blood vessel 2. Latero oesophageal blood vessel 3. Ventral blood vessel 4. Dorsal blood vessel
14. In Pheretima, supra oesophageal blood vessel lies on the dorsal side of the
1. Oesophagus 2. Stomach 3. Intestine 4. Pharynx
15. Paired longitudinal blood vessels in Pheretima are
1. Supra oesophageal blood vessels 2. Latero oesophageal blood vessels 3. Ventral blood vessels 4. Dorsal blood vessels
16. In Pheretima, lateral hearts connect
1.Ventral blood vessel to dorsal blood vessel 2. Ventral blood vessel to supra oesophageal blood vessel
3. Dorsal blood vessel to ventral blood vessel 4. Latro oesophageal blood vessel to supra oesophageal blood vessel
17. In Pheretima, blood flow is from posterior to anterior end in
1. Dorsal blood vessel 2. Ventral blood vessel 3. Sub neural blood vessel 4. Supra oesophageal blood vessel
18. In Pheretima, number of dorso intestinal blood vessels in each segment is
1. 1 pair 2. One 3. 2 pairs 4. 3 pairs
19. Blood vessels act as collecting as well as distributing vessels in Pheretima are
1. Latero oesophageal blood vessels 2. Commissural blood vessels 3. Supra oesophageal blood vessels 4. Sub neural blood vesels
20. Number of valves in each lateral oesophageal heart of Pheretima is
1. 3 pairs 2. 4 pairs 3. 8 pairs 4. 2 pairs
1. Wrong statement about the members of a species
1. Sharing common gene pool and same ecological niche 2. Showing similarity in the karyotype
3. Interbreeding freely and producing for the offspring 4. Having dissimilar structure and functional characteristics
2. Author of “Systema Naturae’ is
1. Linnaeus 2. Mayr 3. John Ray 4. Dobzhansky
3. The dynamic nature of species became popularized after the publication of
1. Linnaeus Systema Naturae 2. Darwin’s Origin of species
3. Lyell’s Principles of Geology 4. Mathus On the principles of population
4. Members of a species show
1. preferential mating 2. Random mating 3. Non-assrtative mating 4. out crossing
5. “Species” means
1. Appearance 2. Arrangement 3.Kind 4. Both 1 and 3
6. Protostomes without body cavity are
1. Annelids 2. Nematodes 3. Echinoderms 4. Platyhelminths
7. Five-kingdom classification of all living organisms was proposed by
1.Whittaker 2. Lamarck 3. Bateson 4. Herbert spencer
8. A: Species is dynamic
R: No new species are formed in course of time
1) Both A & R are true and R explains A 2) Both A & R are true & R does not explains A
3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is tru
9. Statement (S): Species are group of potentially inter-breeding natural populations that are isolated from other such groups
Reason (R): Reproductive isolation brings about distinctive morphological characters
1)Both (S) and (R) are true & (R) is correct explanation to (S) 2) Only (S) is true, (R) is not true
3) Both (S) and (R) are not true 4) Both (S)&(R) are true & R does not explains (S)
10. (A) : Lateral hearts in 12th and 13th segments of Pheretima are called latero oesophageal hearts
(R) : They connect dorsal blood vessel and latero oesophageal blood vessel to ventral blood vessel
1) Both A & R are true and R explains A 2) Both A & R are true & R does not explains A
3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is true
11. (A) : Blood in dorsointestinal blood vessels contains more nutrients in Pheretima
(R) : In the intestinal region of Pheretima each segment contains two pairs of dorsontestinal blood vessels
1) Both A & R are true and R explains A 2) Both A & R are true & R does not explains A
3) A is true, R is false 4) A is false, R is true
12. Arrange the following parts in ascending order based on total number
A. Anterior loops B. Commissurals C. Ventro-intestinals D. Dorso-intestinals E. Ring vessels
1. A-E-C-B-D 2. A-E-C-D-B 3. A-E-B-C-D 4. E-A-B-D-C
13. Shortest longitudinal blood vessel in Pheretima is
1. Supra oesophageal blood vessel 2. Latero oesophageal blood vessel 3. Ventral blood vessel 4. Dorsal blood vessel
14. In Pheretima, supra oesophageal blood vessel lies on the dorsal side of the
1. Oesophagus 2. Stomach 3. Intestine 4. Pharynx
15. Paired longitudinal blood vessels in Pheretima are
1. Supra oesophageal blood vessels 2. Latero oesophageal blood vessels 3. Ventral blood vessels 4. Dorsal blood vessels
16. In Pheretima, lateral hearts connect
1.Ventral blood vessel to dorsal blood vessel 2. Ventral blood vessel to supra oesophageal blood vessel
3. Dorsal blood vessel to ventral blood vessel 4. Latro oesophageal blood vessel to supra oesophageal blood vessel
17. In Pheretima, blood flow is from posterior to anterior end in
1. Dorsal blood vessel 2. Ventral blood vessel 3. Sub neural blood vessel 4. Supra oesophageal blood vessel
18. In Pheretima, number of dorso intestinal blood vessels in each segment is
1. 1 pair 2. One 3. 2 pairs 4. 3 pairs
19. Blood vessels act as collecting as well as distributing vessels in Pheretima are
1. Latero oesophageal blood vessels 2. Commissural blood vessels 3. Supra oesophageal blood vessels 4. Sub neural blood vesels
20. Number of valves in each lateral oesophageal heart of Pheretima is
1. 3 pairs 2. 4 pairs 3. 8 pairs 4. 2 pairs
VENOM APPARATUS
PHYLUM CHORDATA
chordata--_notes--.pdf | |
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ACTINOPTERYGII - LISSAMPHIBIA
actinoo---lisam.pdf | |
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PERIODS AND ERAS , DISTRIBUTION OF CHORDATES AND LARGEST AND SMALLEST CHORDATES
some_important_information_of_chordates.pdf | |
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PRO,MESO AND METANEPHRIC KIDNEYS
kidneys-.pdf | |
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POULTRY DISEASES
poultry_diseases.xls | |
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EAMCET (MEDICINE ) - 2011 PRELIMINARY KEY
key.pdf | |
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DOWN LOAD THE E-BOOK " FUNDAMENTALS OF GENETICS " BY CLICKING THE FOLLOWING LINK
GUIDELINES TO EAMCET ASPIRANTS
DEAR EAMCET ASPIRANTS ,
1 ) IT IS VERY CRUCIAL TURN IN YOUR LIFE , BE POSITIVE IN YOUR THINKING.
2 ) DO NOT THINK THAT YOU DO NOT GET SUCCESS.
3 ) DO NOT GO FOR LEARNING NEW CONCEPTS.
4 ) REVISE YOUR SUBJECTS AGAIN AND AGAIN THE MULTIPLE NUMBER OF TIMES THAT YOU CAN DO AT YOUR BEST FOR YOUR FUTURE.
5 ) NO ONE THINK ABOUT YOU , YOU TOO DO NOT THINK ABOUT OTHERS.
6 ) DO MORE AND MORE PRACTICE BY SOLVING MODEL EAMCET PAPERS.
7 ) PRACTICE OLD EAMCET PAPERS WITHIN TIME ( 3 hrs ).
8 ) TAKE CARE OF YOUR HEALTH.
9 ) DO NOT BURN MIDNIGHT OIL FREQUENTLY.
10 ) GET VALUABLE SUGGESTIONS FROM CONCERNED SUBJECT EXPERTS.
DO NOT DEPEND ON LUCK BECAUSE " LUCK IS NOT IN YOUR HANDS BUT WORK IS IN YOUR HANDS ,
YOUR WORK CAN MAKE YOUR LUCK BUT LUCK CANNOT MAKE YOUR WORK.
SO, ALWAYS TRUST YOURSELF. "
SO , FRIENDS I CANNOT SAY BEST OF LUCK, BUT ONLY I CAN SAY ........
----- ALL THE BEST -----
1 ) IT IS VERY CRUCIAL TURN IN YOUR LIFE , BE POSITIVE IN YOUR THINKING.
2 ) DO NOT THINK THAT YOU DO NOT GET SUCCESS.
3 ) DO NOT GO FOR LEARNING NEW CONCEPTS.
4 ) REVISE YOUR SUBJECTS AGAIN AND AGAIN THE MULTIPLE NUMBER OF TIMES THAT YOU CAN DO AT YOUR BEST FOR YOUR FUTURE.
5 ) NO ONE THINK ABOUT YOU , YOU TOO DO NOT THINK ABOUT OTHERS.
6 ) DO MORE AND MORE PRACTICE BY SOLVING MODEL EAMCET PAPERS.
7 ) PRACTICE OLD EAMCET PAPERS WITHIN TIME ( 3 hrs ).
8 ) TAKE CARE OF YOUR HEALTH.
9 ) DO NOT BURN MIDNIGHT OIL FREQUENTLY.
10 ) GET VALUABLE SUGGESTIONS FROM CONCERNED SUBJECT EXPERTS.
DO NOT DEPEND ON LUCK BECAUSE " LUCK IS NOT IN YOUR HANDS BUT WORK IS IN YOUR HANDS ,
YOUR WORK CAN MAKE YOUR LUCK BUT LUCK CANNOT MAKE YOUR WORK.
SO, ALWAYS TRUST YOURSELF. "
SO , FRIENDS I CANNOT SAY BEST OF LUCK, BUT ONLY I CAN SAY ........
----- ALL THE BEST -----
2010-MEDICAL RANKS ANALYSIS
eamcet_zoology-2010_paper.pdf | |
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eamcet-zoology-2009.pdf | |
File Size: | 3049 kb |
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2008-eamcet-zoology_paper.pdf | |
File Size: | 788 kb |
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2007_-_zoology_eamcet_paper.pdf | |
File Size: | 3144 kb |
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reptile__aves_amd_mammals.pdf | |
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PHERETIMA (UP TO CIRCULATORY SYSTEM)
1. In Pheretima spermathecal openings are located in
1) Ventro lateral sides of 6, 7, 8 and 9 segments 2) Dorsolateral sides of 5/6, 6/7, 7/8 and 8/9 segmental grooves
3) Ventro lateral sides of 5/6, 6/7, 7/8 and 8/9 segmental grooves 4) Dorsal surface of 6, 7, 8 and 9 segments
2. Lymph glands in Pheretima are present in segments
1) 25th to last 2) 26th to last 3) 27th to last 4) 28th to last
3. Observe the statements of Pheretima
I) Retracting and protruding of buccal chamber occurs to ingest food
II) Gizzard acts as grinding and filtering apparatus III) Intestinal caecae attached to intestine in typhlosolar region
IV) Pharynx acts as suction pump
Correct statements are
1) I, II & IV 2) I & IV 3) II, III & IV 4) II & III
4. Assertion (A) : Chlorogogen cells are structurally similar to liver cells of vertebrates.
Reason (R) : Chlorogogen cells control deamination and intermediary metabolism.
1) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
5. Blood glands of earthworm are located in segments where the following structures are also located
1) Pharynx 2) Septal nephredia 3) Forests of nephredia 4) Pharyngeal nephredia
6. Silicates consumed along with food by earthworm are excreted by
1) Circular cells 2) Mucocytes 3) Phagocytes 4) Chlorogogen cells
7. Septa of Pheretima which are complete partitions and oblique are located between the segments
1) 4/5 to 13/14 2) 4/5 to 10/11 3) 4/5 to 11/12 4) 4/5 to 12/13
8. Observe the following statements related to body wall of Pheretima.
I) Circular muscles arranged in the form of bundles
II) Retractor muscles contract when segments of the region become thin and long
III) Cuticle is cellular layer formed of mucopoly saccharides, collagin etc.
IV) Most numerous cells of epidermis are supporting cells
Correct statements are
1) I, II & IV 2) II, III & IV 3) I, II & III 4) II & IV
9. Arrange the structures of Pheretima from anterior to posterior in proper sequence
A) Genital papillae B) Spermathecae
C) Female genital apertue D) Pharyngeal nephredia
1) A ® D ® B ® C 2) D ® B ® C ® A 3) C ® A ® B ® D 4) D ® B ® A ® C
10. Which of the following is not a part of pharyngeal bulb?
1) Chromophil cells 2) Ciliated epithelium 3) Musculovascular 4) Conducting chamber
11. Study the following cells of Pheretima and choose correct combination.
Type of cells Function
a) Mucocytes 1)Largest and numerous cells of coelom
b)Yellow cells 2)Most numerous of epiderm
c)Phagocytes 3)Smallest cells of epidermis
d)Basal cells 4)Glycogenesis
5)Elongated cells of coelom
1) a – 5, b – 4, c – 1, d – 3 2) a – 5, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2
3) a – 1, b – 3, c – 2, d – 4 4) a – 3, b – 5, c – 4, d – 1
12. Find the properly matched combination with reference to earthworm.
Structure Segments Function
I)Gizzard 8th Grinding food
II)Cingulum 14-16 Formation cocoon
III)Typhlosolar region 26th to 23 to 25th from last Digestion of food
IV)Post typhlosolar region Last 23 or 25 segments Reabsorption of water
1) I, II and III 2) I, II and IV 3) II, III and IV 4) III and IV
13. One of the following is not a function of coelom of earth worm
1) Excretory wastes collected are expelled 2) Facilitates exchange of gases
3) Kills bacteria 4) Absorption of food material
14.Assertion (A) : Earthworm can move on smooth surface.
Reason (R) : Setae provide anchorage during locomotion of earthworm.
1) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
15.Satae of earthworm are made up of
1) Collagen 2) Gelatin 3) Chitin 4) Mucopolysaccharides
16.Proteolysins are produced in earthworm by
1) Buccal chamber and pretyphlosolar region 2) Pharynx and Gizzard
3) Buccal chamber and stomach 4) Pharynx and stomach
17.First perforated septum of Pheretima is present between
1) 11/12 2) 12/13 3) 13/14 4) 14/15
18.Primordial germ cells and septa of Pheretima are derived from
1) Visceral layer 2) Parietal layer 3) Endoderm 4) Ectoderm
19.The urea filled cells of earthworm which are ingested by amoebocytes are
1) Enocytes 2) Mucocytes 3) Eleocytes 4) Circular cells
20. Longest earthworm is
1) Drawida grandis 2) Chaetogaster annandalei 3) Megascolides australis 4) Pheretima posthuma
21. Earthworm is protected from U.V. radiation by
1) Melanin 2) Haemoglobin 3) Cuticle 4) Porphyrin
22. Digestive juice secreted by earthworm is compared with the following digestive juice of vertebrates
1) Bile 2) Pancreatic 3) Intestinal 4) Gastric
23. Innermost layer of alimentary canal of Pheretima
1) Parietal layer 2) Visceral layer 3) Circular muscle layer 4) Endodermal layer
24. Longest region of intestine of Pheretima
1) Pretyphlosolar 2) Typhlosolar 3) Post typhlosolar 4) Both clitellar and preclitellar
25. Unpaired aperture of Pheretima
1) Male genital 2) Nephrediopore 3) Female genital 4) Sperma thecal openings
26. In Pheretima, commissural vessels supply blood to
1) Septal nephredia 2) Reproductive organs 3) Intestine 4) Body wall
27. Study the following and choose correct combination.
Blood vessels Segments Functions
I)Ring vessels 10th to 13th segments Direct blood from supra oesophageal to lateral oesophageal blood vessels
II)Anterior loops 10th and 11th Two pairs in each segment connecting supra oesophageal with lateral oesophageals
III)Septo nephredial From 14th to last Supplies blood to septal nephredia
IV)Subneural 14th to last Collecting vessel
1) I and III 2) II and IV 3) III and IV 4) II, III and IV
28. Following are the blood vessels in Pheretima
a) Internal plexus b) Dorsal blood vessel c) Ventro intestinal d) External plexus e) Intestine
Arrange them in the sequence of supply and collection.
1) b ® a ® e ® d ® c 2) c ® d ® e ® a ® b 3) c ®b ® e ® a ® d 4) b ® a ® d ® c ® e
29. Number of pairs of valves in each lateral oesophageal heart of Pheretima in
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
30. Number ring vessels in each of 11th and 12th segments
1) 12 2) 12 pairs 3) 24 4) 24 pairs
31. Shortest longitudinal blood vessel is
1) Lateral oesophageal 2) Supra-oesophageal 3) Anterior loops 4) Ring vessels
32. Number of blood vessels that interconnected dorsal and ventral blood vessels
1) 2 pairs 2) 4 pairs in each segment 3) 4 pairs 4) 6 pairs of Pheretima
33. Arrange the blood vessels of Pheretima in sequence.
A) Pharynx and pharyngeal nephredia B) Ventral blood vessel
C) Dorsal blood vessel D) Supraoesophageal E) Lateral oesophageal Blood vessel F) Lateral oesophageal hearts
1) E ® F ® A ® D ® B ® C 2) C ® D ® A ® F ® E ® B 3) B ® A ® F ® C ® D ® E 4) C ® A ® E ® D ® F ® B
34. Function of red coloured bodies found in 4, 5, 6 segments of earthworm
1) Excretion 2) Secretion 3) Digestion 4) Storage of fat
35. Arrange the constituents of vermicompost in ascending order.
A) Phosphorous B) Nitrogen C) Proteins and micronutrients
1) B ® A ® C 2) C ® A ® B 3) B ® C ® A 4) C ® B ® A
36. Locomotion in earthworm is brought about by
1) Setae & Parapodia 2) Setae & muscles 3) Setae, coelomic fluid and muscles 4) Setae only
37. Non-valvular and non contractile distributing blood vessel in Pheretima is
1) Dorsal blood vessels 2) Ventral blood vessel 3) Lateral oesophageal vessel 4) Supraoesophageal vessel
38. Commissural blood vessel doesnot collect blood from
1) Body wall 2) Reproductive organs 3) Nephredia 4) Intestine
39. Observe statements related to circulatory system of Pheretima and identify correct statements.
I) Septo nephredial arises from ventro tegumentary vessel from 14th segment onwards
II) There are 4 pairs of valves in each of lateral oesophageal hearts and 3 pairs of valves in lateral hearts
III) Dorso intestinal vessels contain digested food material
1) I, II and III 2) II and III 3) I and III 4) I and II
40.Assertion (A) : Blood of earthworm transports CO2 but not O2.
Reason (R) : Haemoglobin is present in dissolved state in plasma of Pheretima.
1) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
41.The youngest segment in earthworm is
1) Peristomium 2) Prostomium 3) Pygidium 4) Pre anal segment
42. In a T.S of Pheretima following structures are observed.
A) subneural blood vessel B) Supra intestinal excretory canal C) Ventral blood vessel D) Nerve cord
Arrange them from dorsal to ventral.
1) B ® A ® C ® D 2) B ® C ® D ® A 3) B ® D ® A ® C 4) C ® A ® B ® D
43. From 14th segment onwards in Pheretima, dorsal blood vessel receives
1) Dorso intestinal 2) commissural
3) Dorso intestinal and commissural 4) Ring vessels and dorso intestinals
44. Match the following aspects of Pheretima.
Structures Significance
a) Prostomium 1)Absence of setae
b)Peristomium 2)Absence of Nephrediopores
c)12/13 groove 3)Absence of coelom
d)9/10 segments 4)First dorsal pore
e)Prostomium and pygidium 5)Absence of septum
6)First true segment
1) a – 6, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2, e – 3 2) a – 3, b – 6, c – 4, d – 5, e – 1 3) a – 6, b – 3, c – 4, d – 5, e – 1 4) a – 2, b – 4, c – 3, d – 1, e – 5
45.Intestinaljuice of Pheretima is similar to
1) Gastric juice 2) Bile juice 3) Pancreatic juice
KEY
1) 3 2) 2 3) 2 4) 4 5) 4 6) 4 7) 2 8) 4 9) 2 10) 4 11) 1 12) 2 13) 4 14) 2 15) 3 16) 4 17) 4 18) 2 19) 3 20) 3 21) 4 22) 2 23) 4 24) 2 25) 3 26) 3 27) 3 28) 2 29) 3 30) 1 31) 2 32) 3 33) 3 34) 2 35) 2 36) 3 37) 2 38) 4 39) 3 40) 4 41) 4 42) 2 43) 3 44)2 45)3
1) Ventro lateral sides of 6, 7, 8 and 9 segments 2) Dorsolateral sides of 5/6, 6/7, 7/8 and 8/9 segmental grooves
3) Ventro lateral sides of 5/6, 6/7, 7/8 and 8/9 segmental grooves 4) Dorsal surface of 6, 7, 8 and 9 segments
2. Lymph glands in Pheretima are present in segments
1) 25th to last 2) 26th to last 3) 27th to last 4) 28th to last
3. Observe the statements of Pheretima
I) Retracting and protruding of buccal chamber occurs to ingest food
II) Gizzard acts as grinding and filtering apparatus III) Intestinal caecae attached to intestine in typhlosolar region
IV) Pharynx acts as suction pump
Correct statements are
1) I, II & IV 2) I & IV 3) II, III & IV 4) II & III
4. Assertion (A) : Chlorogogen cells are structurally similar to liver cells of vertebrates.
Reason (R) : Chlorogogen cells control deamination and intermediary metabolism.
1) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
5. Blood glands of earthworm are located in segments where the following structures are also located
1) Pharynx 2) Septal nephredia 3) Forests of nephredia 4) Pharyngeal nephredia
6. Silicates consumed along with food by earthworm are excreted by
1) Circular cells 2) Mucocytes 3) Phagocytes 4) Chlorogogen cells
7. Septa of Pheretima which are complete partitions and oblique are located between the segments
1) 4/5 to 13/14 2) 4/5 to 10/11 3) 4/5 to 11/12 4) 4/5 to 12/13
8. Observe the following statements related to body wall of Pheretima.
I) Circular muscles arranged in the form of bundles
II) Retractor muscles contract when segments of the region become thin and long
III) Cuticle is cellular layer formed of mucopoly saccharides, collagin etc.
IV) Most numerous cells of epidermis are supporting cells
Correct statements are
1) I, II & IV 2) II, III & IV 3) I, II & III 4) II & IV
9. Arrange the structures of Pheretima from anterior to posterior in proper sequence
A) Genital papillae B) Spermathecae
C) Female genital apertue D) Pharyngeal nephredia
1) A ® D ® B ® C 2) D ® B ® C ® A 3) C ® A ® B ® D 4) D ® B ® A ® C
10. Which of the following is not a part of pharyngeal bulb?
1) Chromophil cells 2) Ciliated epithelium 3) Musculovascular 4) Conducting chamber
11. Study the following cells of Pheretima and choose correct combination.
Type of cells Function
a) Mucocytes 1)Largest and numerous cells of coelom
b)Yellow cells 2)Most numerous of epiderm
c)Phagocytes 3)Smallest cells of epidermis
d)Basal cells 4)Glycogenesis
5)Elongated cells of coelom
1) a – 5, b – 4, c – 1, d – 3 2) a – 5, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2
3) a – 1, b – 3, c – 2, d – 4 4) a – 3, b – 5, c – 4, d – 1
12. Find the properly matched combination with reference to earthworm.
Structure Segments Function
I)Gizzard 8th Grinding food
II)Cingulum 14-16 Formation cocoon
III)Typhlosolar region 26th to 23 to 25th from last Digestion of food
IV)Post typhlosolar region Last 23 or 25 segments Reabsorption of water
1) I, II and III 2) I, II and IV 3) II, III and IV 4) III and IV
13. One of the following is not a function of coelom of earth worm
1) Excretory wastes collected are expelled 2) Facilitates exchange of gases
3) Kills bacteria 4) Absorption of food material
14.Assertion (A) : Earthworm can move on smooth surface.
Reason (R) : Setae provide anchorage during locomotion of earthworm.
1) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
15.Satae of earthworm are made up of
1) Collagen 2) Gelatin 3) Chitin 4) Mucopolysaccharides
16.Proteolysins are produced in earthworm by
1) Buccal chamber and pretyphlosolar region 2) Pharynx and Gizzard
3) Buccal chamber and stomach 4) Pharynx and stomach
17.First perforated septum of Pheretima is present between
1) 11/12 2) 12/13 3) 13/14 4) 14/15
18.Primordial germ cells and septa of Pheretima are derived from
1) Visceral layer 2) Parietal layer 3) Endoderm 4) Ectoderm
19.The urea filled cells of earthworm which are ingested by amoebocytes are
1) Enocytes 2) Mucocytes 3) Eleocytes 4) Circular cells
20. Longest earthworm is
1) Drawida grandis 2) Chaetogaster annandalei 3) Megascolides australis 4) Pheretima posthuma
21. Earthworm is protected from U.V. radiation by
1) Melanin 2) Haemoglobin 3) Cuticle 4) Porphyrin
22. Digestive juice secreted by earthworm is compared with the following digestive juice of vertebrates
1) Bile 2) Pancreatic 3) Intestinal 4) Gastric
23. Innermost layer of alimentary canal of Pheretima
1) Parietal layer 2) Visceral layer 3) Circular muscle layer 4) Endodermal layer
24. Longest region of intestine of Pheretima
1) Pretyphlosolar 2) Typhlosolar 3) Post typhlosolar 4) Both clitellar and preclitellar
25. Unpaired aperture of Pheretima
1) Male genital 2) Nephrediopore 3) Female genital 4) Sperma thecal openings
26. In Pheretima, commissural vessels supply blood to
1) Septal nephredia 2) Reproductive organs 3) Intestine 4) Body wall
27. Study the following and choose correct combination.
Blood vessels Segments Functions
I)Ring vessels 10th to 13th segments Direct blood from supra oesophageal to lateral oesophageal blood vessels
II)Anterior loops 10th and 11th Two pairs in each segment connecting supra oesophageal with lateral oesophageals
III)Septo nephredial From 14th to last Supplies blood to septal nephredia
IV)Subneural 14th to last Collecting vessel
1) I and III 2) II and IV 3) III and IV 4) II, III and IV
28. Following are the blood vessels in Pheretima
a) Internal plexus b) Dorsal blood vessel c) Ventro intestinal d) External plexus e) Intestine
Arrange them in the sequence of supply and collection.
1) b ® a ® e ® d ® c 2) c ® d ® e ® a ® b 3) c ®b ® e ® a ® d 4) b ® a ® d ® c ® e
29. Number of pairs of valves in each lateral oesophageal heart of Pheretima in
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
30. Number ring vessels in each of 11th and 12th segments
1) 12 2) 12 pairs 3) 24 4) 24 pairs
31. Shortest longitudinal blood vessel is
1) Lateral oesophageal 2) Supra-oesophageal 3) Anterior loops 4) Ring vessels
32. Number of blood vessels that interconnected dorsal and ventral blood vessels
1) 2 pairs 2) 4 pairs in each segment 3) 4 pairs 4) 6 pairs of Pheretima
33. Arrange the blood vessels of Pheretima in sequence.
A) Pharynx and pharyngeal nephredia B) Ventral blood vessel
C) Dorsal blood vessel D) Supraoesophageal E) Lateral oesophageal Blood vessel F) Lateral oesophageal hearts
1) E ® F ® A ® D ® B ® C 2) C ® D ® A ® F ® E ® B 3) B ® A ® F ® C ® D ® E 4) C ® A ® E ® D ® F ® B
34. Function of red coloured bodies found in 4, 5, 6 segments of earthworm
1) Excretion 2) Secretion 3) Digestion 4) Storage of fat
35. Arrange the constituents of vermicompost in ascending order.
A) Phosphorous B) Nitrogen C) Proteins and micronutrients
1) B ® A ® C 2) C ® A ® B 3) B ® C ® A 4) C ® B ® A
36. Locomotion in earthworm is brought about by
1) Setae & Parapodia 2) Setae & muscles 3) Setae, coelomic fluid and muscles 4) Setae only
37. Non-valvular and non contractile distributing blood vessel in Pheretima is
1) Dorsal blood vessels 2) Ventral blood vessel 3) Lateral oesophageal vessel 4) Supraoesophageal vessel
38. Commissural blood vessel doesnot collect blood from
1) Body wall 2) Reproductive organs 3) Nephredia 4) Intestine
39. Observe statements related to circulatory system of Pheretima and identify correct statements.
I) Septo nephredial arises from ventro tegumentary vessel from 14th segment onwards
II) There are 4 pairs of valves in each of lateral oesophageal hearts and 3 pairs of valves in lateral hearts
III) Dorso intestinal vessels contain digested food material
1) I, II and III 2) II and III 3) I and III 4) I and II
40.Assertion (A) : Blood of earthworm transports CO2 but not O2.
Reason (R) : Haemoglobin is present in dissolved state in plasma of Pheretima.
1) both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 4) (A) is false but (R) is true
41.The youngest segment in earthworm is
1) Peristomium 2) Prostomium 3) Pygidium 4) Pre anal segment
42. In a T.S of Pheretima following structures are observed.
A) subneural blood vessel B) Supra intestinal excretory canal C) Ventral blood vessel D) Nerve cord
Arrange them from dorsal to ventral.
1) B ® A ® C ® D 2) B ® C ® D ® A 3) B ® D ® A ® C 4) C ® A ® B ® D
43. From 14th segment onwards in Pheretima, dorsal blood vessel receives
1) Dorso intestinal 2) commissural
3) Dorso intestinal and commissural 4) Ring vessels and dorso intestinals
44. Match the following aspects of Pheretima.
Structures Significance
a) Prostomium 1)Absence of setae
b)Peristomium 2)Absence of Nephrediopores
c)12/13 groove 3)Absence of coelom
d)9/10 segments 4)First dorsal pore
e)Prostomium and pygidium 5)Absence of septum
6)First true segment
1) a – 6, b – 4, c – 1, d – 2, e – 3 2) a – 3, b – 6, c – 4, d – 5, e – 1 3) a – 6, b – 3, c – 4, d – 5, e – 1 4) a – 2, b – 4, c – 3, d – 1, e – 5
45.Intestinaljuice of Pheretima is similar to
1) Gastric juice 2) Bile juice 3) Pancreatic juice
KEY
1) 3 2) 2 3) 2 4) 4 5) 4 6) 4 7) 2 8) 4 9) 2 10) 4 11) 1 12) 2 13) 4 14) 2 15) 3 16) 4 17) 4 18) 2 19) 3 20) 3 21) 4 22) 2 23) 4 24) 2 25) 3 26) 3 27) 3 28) 2 29) 3 30) 1 31) 2 32) 3 33) 3 34) 2 35) 2 36) 3 37) 2 38) 4 39) 3 40) 4 41) 4 42) 2 43) 3 44)2 45)3
Components of Nervous System Neuron:
LEVEL - I
539). The cells of nervous tissue that can undergo mitosis are
1) neurons 2) satillite cells
3) pericytes 4) glial cells
540). The axon teminates on other meurons or effectors by small branches called
1) terminal boutons
2) terminal arborization
3) dendrites
4) axon hillock
541). An interneuron is present between
1) axon of efferent neuron and dendrite of
afferent neuron
2) axon of afferent neuron and dendrite of
efferent neuron
3) motor neuron and effector organ
4) collateral of motor neuron and dendrite of
sensory neuron
542). Sarcolemma resembles axolemma in
1) presence of myelin sheath
2) presence of nodes of Ranvier
3) conduction of impulse
4) presence of collateral branches
543). Nissil bodies present in the cytoplasm of cyton
are rich in
1) centrioles 2) golgi bodies
3) ribosomes 4) lysosomes
544). The part of the perikaryon from which axon
arises is known as
1) nodes of Ranvier
2) collateral axon
3) soma 4) axon hillock
545). Vascular loose connective tissue sheath round
the axon is
1) axolemma 2) perineurium
3) epineurium 4) endoneurium
546). Neurotrasmitter stimulates
1) presynaptic membrane of dendrite
2) post synaptic membrane of axon
3) post synaptic membrane of dendrites
4) pre synaptic membrane of axon
LEVEL - II
547). Statement (S) : Schwann sheath prevents the
movement of Na+ and K+ ions in and out of axon
Reason (R) : Schwann sheath is composed
of only proteins
548). Arrange following from inner to outer of the
region in between the two successive nodes of
Ranvier in a myelinated neuron
A. Myelin sheath B. Neurilemma
C. Endoneurium D. Axolemma
1) DABC 2) DBCA
3) DCAB 4) DACB
549). Arrange the following parts of nerve cells
in correct order according to the pathway of
nerve impulse
A. Axon B. Cyton C. Synapse
D. Dendrites of other neuron
E. Axon terminals
1) BEACD 2) BAECD
3) DEACB 4) DCEAB
550). Arrange the following in a sequence according
to the direction of flow of impulse across the
synapse.
A. Post synapatic membrane
B. Synaptic cleft
C. Pre- synaptic membrane
D. Synaptic Knob
1)D-C-B-A 2) C-D-B-A
3) A-B-C-D 4) A-B-C-D
551). Arrange the following in a sequence according
to the nerve impulse transimission in a neuron
A. Telodendrite B. Dendrite
C. Perikaryon D. Axon
1) C-D-A-B 2) B-C-D-A
3) A-D-C-B 4) D-C-B-A
552). Arrange the following in a sequence from
inside to outside of the axon of a myelinated
neuron
A. Axolemma B. Axoplasm
C. Myelin sheath D. Neurilemma
1) D-C-A-B 2) B-A-C-D
3) A-B-D-C 4) B-A-D-C
553). Arrange the following parts of a neuron from
anterior end to posterior end in a sequence
A. Dendrite B. Axon hillock
C. Axon terminals D. Axon
1) C-D-B-A 2) C-D-B-A
3) A-B-D-C 4) A-D-B-C
554) Arrange the following in a sequence from
outside to inside of a nerve
A. Endoneurium B. Perineurium C. Fasciculus D. Epineurium 1) D-B-C-A 2) D-C-B-A
3) A-C-B-D 4) A-B-C-D
555) Identify the correct statements
I. Unmyelinated neurons are not seen in
peripheral nervous system
II. In autonomous nervous system only
myelinated neurons are present
III. In central nervous system both myelinated
and non-myelinated neurons are seen
1) I and II 2) I and III
3) II and III 4) I, II and III
556) The following are the statements about neurons
I. Neurons function as means of
communication between the receptors and
effectors.
II. Neurons which conduct impulses from
receptors towards central nervous system are
called sensory neurons
III. Neurons which connect sensory neurons to
Motor neurons are called Afferent neurons.
IV. Neurons which conduct impulses from the
central nervous system towards the effectors
are called efferent neurons
The incorrect statement is
1) I 2) II 3) III 4) IV
557) The following are the statements about
Neurons
I. A neuron may have none to many dendrites
but always has only one axon
II. A neuron having one dendrite is called
unipolar neuron
III. A neuron with two dendrites is called Bipolar neuron
IV. A neuron having many dendrites and one
axon is called multipolar neuron
Which of the above are correct
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) I and IV 4) I,II and IV
558) The following are the statements about
Neuroglia
I. Neuroglia are both Ectodermal and
Mesodermal in origin
II. The small tree like neuroglial cells are called
Microglia
III. The tall columnar ciliated neuroglial cells
are called ependymal cells
The incorrect statements is
1) I 2) II 3) III 4) All
Glial Cells:
•Glial cell of the central nervous system are oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, ependymal cells and microglia.
•Glial cells of the peripheral nervous system of satellite cells and schwann cells.
•The cells that produce the myelin sheath are oligodendrocytes.
•Star - shaped glial cells are astrocytes
•The glial cells which bind neurons to capillaries are astrocytes.
•The glial cells which form blood - brain barrier are astrocytes.
•Columnar epithelial cells lining the ventricles of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord are ependymal cells.
•The cells which faciliates the movement of cerebrospinal fluid are ependymal cells.
•Small elongated cells derived from mesoderm are microglia.
•The cells that represent mononuclear phagocytic system of nerve tissue are microglia.
•Microglia are derived from precursor cells in the bone marrow.
•Phagocytic glial cells are microglia
•The glial cells of peripheral nervous system surrounding the cell bodies of ganglia are satelite cells.
•The glial cells of peripheral surrounding axons are schwann cells.
•The layer of cell membranes of schwann cell unite and form a whitish myelin sheath around axon called myelin sheath.
•Outer most layer of schwann cells that contains cytoplasm and nucleus is called neurilemma or sheath of schwann.
•Gaps in the myelin sheath are called the nodes of Ranvier.
•The distance between the nodes is called an internode and consists of one schwann cell.
•Supporting cells are absent around the unmyelinated axons of the central nervous system.
Glial Cells:
LEVEL - I
559). Star shaped glial cells with many radiating process are
1) oligodendrocytes 2) astrocytes
3) microglia 4) satellite cells
560). The origin of non - impulse conducting cells of nervous system is
1) ectoderma 2) endodermal
3) mesodermal 4) ecto-mesodermal
561). The blood and brain barrier is formed by
1) astrocytes 2) microgleal cells 3) neurons 4) oligodendroglia
562). Which of the following cells represent the mononuclear phagocytic system
1) microglia 2) oligodendroglia 3) astrocytes 4) all neuroglial cells
563). Elongated glial cells of CNS, derived from mesoderm are
1) oligodendrocytes 2) ependymal cells 3) microgleal cells 4) astrocytes
564). Myelin sheath producing cells of axon of CNS are
1) astrocytes 2) ependymal cells
3) microglia 4) oligodendrocytes
565). The cells of central nervous system that they represent the mononuclear phagocytic system are
1) oligodendrocytes 2) ependymal cells
3) microglia 4) astrocytes
566). Microglia are derived from the precursor cells in the
1) bone marrow 2) liver
3) spleen 4) lymph nodes
567). Glial cells of the peripheral nervous system are the
1) microglia and astrocytes
2) oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells
3) myelinated fibres
4) satellite cells and schwann cells
568). One of the following non-impulse conduction
cells originates from the germ layer that forms
the muscles
1) microglia 2) astrocytes
3) schwann cells 4) ependymal cells
569). Precursors of myelin sheath in CNS are
1) microglia cells 2) oligodendrocytes
3) schwann cells 4) astrocytes
570). Ependyma in central nervous system made
up of
1) columnar epithelium 2) cuboidal epithelium
3) columnar ciliated epithelium
4) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
LEVEL - II
571). Statement (S) : Astrocytes act as blood brain barrier.
Reason (R): They are in contact with neurons and the basement membranes of blood capillaries
572). Statement (S) : Astrocytes protect the
neurons in the brain from toxins present in the blood
Reason (R) : Astrocytes form a part of the
blood brain barrier
573). Match the following : (EAMCET-2007)
Set - I Set - II
(a) astrocytes 1. Resting macrophages
(b) Microglia 2. Precursors of
Myelin sheath
(c) Oligodendrocytes 3. Set up currents
in cerebrospinal fluid
(d) Ependymal 4. Protects neurons
cells of brain from toxins
The correct match is
(1) a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1
(2) a-1 b-3 c-2 d-4
(3) a-3 b-2 c-4 d-1
(4) a-4 b-1 c-2 d-3
574). Match the following
List-I List-II
A. Oligodendrocytes I. Resting
macrophages
B. Astrocytes II. Precusors of myelin
sheaths
C. Ependyma III. Blood brain barrier
D. Microglia IV. Lining of ventricles
of brain
A B C D
1) II III I IV
2) III II I IV
3) II III IV I
4) III II IV I
Types of Neurons and Nerve Fibres
•Most neurons of the body are multipolar.
•Multipolar neurons have one axon and two or more dendrites.
•Bipolar neurons have one dendrite and one axon.
•Bipolar neurons are found in the retina of eye, inner ear and olfactory membrane.
•Unipolar neurons have a single process.
•Cytons of unipolar neurons found in the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves.
•Neurons of dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves also called pseudounipolar neurons ( they are sensory)
•Neurons that control effector organs by carrying impulses are motor (afferent) neurons.
•Neurons involved in the reception of sensory stimuli from the enviroment are sensory neurons (afferent)
•Sensory and motor neurons are connected by interneurons.
•Motor neurons and interneurons are multipolar.
•White matter of the brain and spinal cord contains myelinated axons and oligodendrocytes.
•Grey matter contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites and the unmyelinated axons and glial cells.
•White appearrance of white matter is due to myelin, grey apperance of grey matter is due to nissl bodies.
•Groups of nerve fibres in the central nervous system are called tracts.
•Aggregates of neuronal cell bodies in the central nervous system are called nuclei.
•Aggregates of neuronal cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system are called ganglia.
•Nerve is a bundles of nerve fibres.
•Loose connective tissue sheath surrounding a nerve fibre is endoneurium.
•A bundle of nerve fibres is called fascicle.
•Dense irregular connective tissue surrounding a fascicle is called perineurium.
•Dense irregular connective tissue surrounding all fascicles of a nerve is called epineurium.
•Myelinated nerve fibres present in cranial nerves and spinal nerves
•Unmyelinated fibres present in autonomic nerves.
•Myelin sheath around axons is produced in the CNS by oligodendrocytes and in the PNS by schwann cells
LEVEL - I
575). Axon arise from this part of perikaryon
1) axon hillcok 2) terminal bouton
3) nodes of Ranvier 4) synaptic cleft
576). Multipolar neurons are
1) sensory neurons and interneurons
2) efferent neurons and astrocytes
3) microglia and afferent neurons
4) motor neurons and interneurons
577). Nerve fibers are formed by
1) cytons 2) axons
3) dendrites 4) total neuron
578). The neurons with single axon and single
dendrite is
1) unipolar neuron
2) bipolar neuron
3) pseudounipolar neuron
4) multipolar neuron
579). Dorsal root nerve ganglia is an example for
1) apolar neuron
2) bipolar neuron
3) pseudounipolar neuron
4) multipolar neuron
580). Neurilemma is
1) schwann cell with cytoplasm and nucleus
2) lipid filled part of schwann cell
3) formed by astrocytes
4) formed by axon of neuron
581). Synapse is a wide gap present between
1) axons of two neurons
2) axon of a neuron and dendrite of another neuron
3) dendrites of two neurons
4) two cytons of two nerve cells
582). Schwann sheaths and nodes of Ranvier are absent in
1).White matter of central nervous system
2).Myelinated neurons
3).Grey matter with non medullated neurons 4).Motor neurons
583). Inter node consists of
1) one schwann cell
2) two schwann cells
3) many schwann cells
4) no schwann cells
584). Myelin sheath around axons is produced in the peripheral nervous system by
1) oligodendrocytes 2) schwann cells
3) astrocytes 4) ependymal cells
585). Bipolar neurons found in
1) retina of eye 2) inner ear
3) olfactory membrane 4) all
586). White matter contains
1) cell bodies and unmyelinated axons
2) dendrites and glial cells
3) neuronal cell bodies and dendrites
4) myelinated axons and oligodendrocytes
LEVEL - II
587). Arrange the following neurons in descending
order based on the number of dendrites they
possess
A. Bipolar neuron B. Unipolar neuron
C. Multipolar neuron
1) B-A-C 2) B-C-A
3) C-A-B 4) A-C-B
588). Read the following statements
I. Bipolar neuron contains a dendrite and an
axon
II.Pseudounipolar neuron has a dentrite and an
axon that arise from a common process
III. A neuron may be without dendrites but not
without axon
IV. Sometimes perikaryon itself acts as a
receptor
The correct combination is
1) I and III 2) I, III and IV
3) II and IV 4) II and IV
KEY
Components of Nervous System Neuron:
539) 4 540) 2 541) 2 542) 3 543) 3 544) 4 545) 4 546) 3 547) 3 548) 3 549) 2 550) 1 551) 2 552) 2 553) 3 554) 1 555) 4 556) 3 557) 3 558) 2
Glial Cells:
559) 2 560) 4 561) 1 562) 1 563) 3 564) 4 565) 3 566) 1 567) 4 568) 1 569) 2 570) 3 571) 1 572) 1 573) 4 574) 3
Types of Neurons and Nerve Fibres
575) 1 576) 4 577) 2 578) 2 579) 3 580) 1 581) 2 582) 3 583) 1 584) 2 585) 4 586) 4 587) 3 588) 2
LEVEL - I
539). The cells of nervous tissue that can undergo mitosis are
1) neurons 2) satillite cells
3) pericytes 4) glial cells
540). The axon teminates on other meurons or effectors by small branches called
1) terminal boutons
2) terminal arborization
3) dendrites
4) axon hillock
541). An interneuron is present between
1) axon of efferent neuron and dendrite of
afferent neuron
2) axon of afferent neuron and dendrite of
efferent neuron
3) motor neuron and effector organ
4) collateral of motor neuron and dendrite of
sensory neuron
542). Sarcolemma resembles axolemma in
1) presence of myelin sheath
2) presence of nodes of Ranvier
3) conduction of impulse
4) presence of collateral branches
543). Nissil bodies present in the cytoplasm of cyton
are rich in
1) centrioles 2) golgi bodies
3) ribosomes 4) lysosomes
544). The part of the perikaryon from which axon
arises is known as
1) nodes of Ranvier
2) collateral axon
3) soma 4) axon hillock
545). Vascular loose connective tissue sheath round
the axon is
1) axolemma 2) perineurium
3) epineurium 4) endoneurium
546). Neurotrasmitter stimulates
1) presynaptic membrane of dendrite
2) post synaptic membrane of axon
3) post synaptic membrane of dendrites
4) pre synaptic membrane of axon
LEVEL - II
547). Statement (S) : Schwann sheath prevents the
movement of Na+ and K+ ions in and out of axon
Reason (R) : Schwann sheath is composed
of only proteins
548). Arrange following from inner to outer of the
region in between the two successive nodes of
Ranvier in a myelinated neuron
A. Myelin sheath B. Neurilemma
C. Endoneurium D. Axolemma
1) DABC 2) DBCA
3) DCAB 4) DACB
549). Arrange the following parts of nerve cells
in correct order according to the pathway of
nerve impulse
A. Axon B. Cyton C. Synapse
D. Dendrites of other neuron
E. Axon terminals
1) BEACD 2) BAECD
3) DEACB 4) DCEAB
550). Arrange the following in a sequence according
to the direction of flow of impulse across the
synapse.
A. Post synapatic membrane
B. Synaptic cleft
C. Pre- synaptic membrane
D. Synaptic Knob
1)D-C-B-A 2) C-D-B-A
3) A-B-C-D 4) A-B-C-D
551). Arrange the following in a sequence according
to the nerve impulse transimission in a neuron
A. Telodendrite B. Dendrite
C. Perikaryon D. Axon
1) C-D-A-B 2) B-C-D-A
3) A-D-C-B 4) D-C-B-A
552). Arrange the following in a sequence from
inside to outside of the axon of a myelinated
neuron
A. Axolemma B. Axoplasm
C. Myelin sheath D. Neurilemma
1) D-C-A-B 2) B-A-C-D
3) A-B-D-C 4) B-A-D-C
553). Arrange the following parts of a neuron from
anterior end to posterior end in a sequence
A. Dendrite B. Axon hillock
C. Axon terminals D. Axon
1) C-D-B-A 2) C-D-B-A
3) A-B-D-C 4) A-D-B-C
554) Arrange the following in a sequence from
outside to inside of a nerve
A. Endoneurium B. Perineurium C. Fasciculus D. Epineurium 1) D-B-C-A 2) D-C-B-A
3) A-C-B-D 4) A-B-C-D
555) Identify the correct statements
I. Unmyelinated neurons are not seen in
peripheral nervous system
II. In autonomous nervous system only
myelinated neurons are present
III. In central nervous system both myelinated
and non-myelinated neurons are seen
1) I and II 2) I and III
3) II and III 4) I, II and III
556) The following are the statements about neurons
I. Neurons function as means of
communication between the receptors and
effectors.
II. Neurons which conduct impulses from
receptors towards central nervous system are
called sensory neurons
III. Neurons which connect sensory neurons to
Motor neurons are called Afferent neurons.
IV. Neurons which conduct impulses from the
central nervous system towards the effectors
are called efferent neurons
The incorrect statement is
1) I 2) II 3) III 4) IV
557) The following are the statements about
Neurons
I. A neuron may have none to many dendrites
but always has only one axon
II. A neuron having one dendrite is called
unipolar neuron
III. A neuron with two dendrites is called Bipolar neuron
IV. A neuron having many dendrites and one
axon is called multipolar neuron
Which of the above are correct
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) I and IV 4) I,II and IV
558) The following are the statements about
Neuroglia
I. Neuroglia are both Ectodermal and
Mesodermal in origin
II. The small tree like neuroglial cells are called
Microglia
III. The tall columnar ciliated neuroglial cells
are called ependymal cells
The incorrect statements is
1) I 2) II 3) III 4) All
Glial Cells:
•Glial cell of the central nervous system are oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, ependymal cells and microglia.
•Glial cells of the peripheral nervous system of satellite cells and schwann cells.
•The cells that produce the myelin sheath are oligodendrocytes.
•Star - shaped glial cells are astrocytes
•The glial cells which bind neurons to capillaries are astrocytes.
•The glial cells which form blood - brain barrier are astrocytes.
•Columnar epithelial cells lining the ventricles of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord are ependymal cells.
•The cells which faciliates the movement of cerebrospinal fluid are ependymal cells.
•Small elongated cells derived from mesoderm are microglia.
•The cells that represent mononuclear phagocytic system of nerve tissue are microglia.
•Microglia are derived from precursor cells in the bone marrow.
•Phagocytic glial cells are microglia
•The glial cells of peripheral nervous system surrounding the cell bodies of ganglia are satelite cells.
•The glial cells of peripheral surrounding axons are schwann cells.
•The layer of cell membranes of schwann cell unite and form a whitish myelin sheath around axon called myelin sheath.
•Outer most layer of schwann cells that contains cytoplasm and nucleus is called neurilemma or sheath of schwann.
•Gaps in the myelin sheath are called the nodes of Ranvier.
•The distance between the nodes is called an internode and consists of one schwann cell.
•Supporting cells are absent around the unmyelinated axons of the central nervous system.
Glial Cells:
LEVEL - I
559). Star shaped glial cells with many radiating process are
1) oligodendrocytes 2) astrocytes
3) microglia 4) satellite cells
560). The origin of non - impulse conducting cells of nervous system is
1) ectoderma 2) endodermal
3) mesodermal 4) ecto-mesodermal
561). The blood and brain barrier is formed by
1) astrocytes 2) microgleal cells 3) neurons 4) oligodendroglia
562). Which of the following cells represent the mononuclear phagocytic system
1) microglia 2) oligodendroglia 3) astrocytes 4) all neuroglial cells
563). Elongated glial cells of CNS, derived from mesoderm are
1) oligodendrocytes 2) ependymal cells 3) microgleal cells 4) astrocytes
564). Myelin sheath producing cells of axon of CNS are
1) astrocytes 2) ependymal cells
3) microglia 4) oligodendrocytes
565). The cells of central nervous system that they represent the mononuclear phagocytic system are
1) oligodendrocytes 2) ependymal cells
3) microglia 4) astrocytes
566). Microglia are derived from the precursor cells in the
1) bone marrow 2) liver
3) spleen 4) lymph nodes
567). Glial cells of the peripheral nervous system are the
1) microglia and astrocytes
2) oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells
3) myelinated fibres
4) satellite cells and schwann cells
568). One of the following non-impulse conduction
cells originates from the germ layer that forms
the muscles
1) microglia 2) astrocytes
3) schwann cells 4) ependymal cells
569). Precursors of myelin sheath in CNS are
1) microglia cells 2) oligodendrocytes
3) schwann cells 4) astrocytes
570). Ependyma in central nervous system made
up of
1) columnar epithelium 2) cuboidal epithelium
3) columnar ciliated epithelium
4) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
LEVEL - II
571). Statement (S) : Astrocytes act as blood brain barrier.
Reason (R): They are in contact with neurons and the basement membranes of blood capillaries
572). Statement (S) : Astrocytes protect the
neurons in the brain from toxins present in the blood
Reason (R) : Astrocytes form a part of the
blood brain barrier
573). Match the following : (EAMCET-2007)
Set - I Set - II
(a) astrocytes 1. Resting macrophages
(b) Microglia 2. Precursors of
Myelin sheath
(c) Oligodendrocytes 3. Set up currents
in cerebrospinal fluid
(d) Ependymal 4. Protects neurons
cells of brain from toxins
The correct match is
(1) a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1
(2) a-1 b-3 c-2 d-4
(3) a-3 b-2 c-4 d-1
(4) a-4 b-1 c-2 d-3
574). Match the following
List-I List-II
A. Oligodendrocytes I. Resting
macrophages
B. Astrocytes II. Precusors of myelin
sheaths
C. Ependyma III. Blood brain barrier
D. Microglia IV. Lining of ventricles
of brain
A B C D
1) II III I IV
2) III II I IV
3) II III IV I
4) III II IV I
Types of Neurons and Nerve Fibres
•Most neurons of the body are multipolar.
•Multipolar neurons have one axon and two or more dendrites.
•Bipolar neurons have one dendrite and one axon.
•Bipolar neurons are found in the retina of eye, inner ear and olfactory membrane.
•Unipolar neurons have a single process.
•Cytons of unipolar neurons found in the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves.
•Neurons of dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves also called pseudounipolar neurons ( they are sensory)
•Neurons that control effector organs by carrying impulses are motor (afferent) neurons.
•Neurons involved in the reception of sensory stimuli from the enviroment are sensory neurons (afferent)
•Sensory and motor neurons are connected by interneurons.
•Motor neurons and interneurons are multipolar.
•White matter of the brain and spinal cord contains myelinated axons and oligodendrocytes.
•Grey matter contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites and the unmyelinated axons and glial cells.
•White appearrance of white matter is due to myelin, grey apperance of grey matter is due to nissl bodies.
•Groups of nerve fibres in the central nervous system are called tracts.
•Aggregates of neuronal cell bodies in the central nervous system are called nuclei.
•Aggregates of neuronal cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system are called ganglia.
•Nerve is a bundles of nerve fibres.
•Loose connective tissue sheath surrounding a nerve fibre is endoneurium.
•A bundle of nerve fibres is called fascicle.
•Dense irregular connective tissue surrounding a fascicle is called perineurium.
•Dense irregular connective tissue surrounding all fascicles of a nerve is called epineurium.
•Myelinated nerve fibres present in cranial nerves and spinal nerves
•Unmyelinated fibres present in autonomic nerves.
•Myelin sheath around axons is produced in the CNS by oligodendrocytes and in the PNS by schwann cells
LEVEL - I
575). Axon arise from this part of perikaryon
1) axon hillcok 2) terminal bouton
3) nodes of Ranvier 4) synaptic cleft
576). Multipolar neurons are
1) sensory neurons and interneurons
2) efferent neurons and astrocytes
3) microglia and afferent neurons
4) motor neurons and interneurons
577). Nerve fibers are formed by
1) cytons 2) axons
3) dendrites 4) total neuron
578). The neurons with single axon and single
dendrite is
1) unipolar neuron
2) bipolar neuron
3) pseudounipolar neuron
4) multipolar neuron
579). Dorsal root nerve ganglia is an example for
1) apolar neuron
2) bipolar neuron
3) pseudounipolar neuron
4) multipolar neuron
580). Neurilemma is
1) schwann cell with cytoplasm and nucleus
2) lipid filled part of schwann cell
3) formed by astrocytes
4) formed by axon of neuron
581). Synapse is a wide gap present between
1) axons of two neurons
2) axon of a neuron and dendrite of another neuron
3) dendrites of two neurons
4) two cytons of two nerve cells
582). Schwann sheaths and nodes of Ranvier are absent in
1).White matter of central nervous system
2).Myelinated neurons
3).Grey matter with non medullated neurons 4).Motor neurons
583). Inter node consists of
1) one schwann cell
2) two schwann cells
3) many schwann cells
4) no schwann cells
584). Myelin sheath around axons is produced in the peripheral nervous system by
1) oligodendrocytes 2) schwann cells
3) astrocytes 4) ependymal cells
585). Bipolar neurons found in
1) retina of eye 2) inner ear
3) olfactory membrane 4) all
586). White matter contains
1) cell bodies and unmyelinated axons
2) dendrites and glial cells
3) neuronal cell bodies and dendrites
4) myelinated axons and oligodendrocytes
LEVEL - II
587). Arrange the following neurons in descending
order based on the number of dendrites they
possess
A. Bipolar neuron B. Unipolar neuron
C. Multipolar neuron
1) B-A-C 2) B-C-A
3) C-A-B 4) A-C-B
588). Read the following statements
I. Bipolar neuron contains a dendrite and an
axon
II.Pseudounipolar neuron has a dentrite and an
axon that arise from a common process
III. A neuron may be without dendrites but not
without axon
IV. Sometimes perikaryon itself acts as a
receptor
The correct combination is
1) I and III 2) I, III and IV
3) II and IV 4) II and IV
KEY
Components of Nervous System Neuron:
539) 4 540) 2 541) 2 542) 3 543) 3 544) 4 545) 4 546) 3 547) 3 548) 3 549) 2 550) 1 551) 2 552) 2 553) 3 554) 1 555) 4 556) 3 557) 3 558) 2
Glial Cells:
559) 2 560) 4 561) 1 562) 1 563) 3 564) 4 565) 3 566) 1 567) 4 568) 1 569) 2 570) 3 571) 1 572) 1 573) 4 574) 3
Types of Neurons and Nerve Fibres
575) 1 576) 4 577) 2 578) 2 579) 3 580) 1 581) 2 582) 3 583) 1 584) 2 585) 4 586) 4 587) 3 588) 2
Components of Nervous System Neuron:
LEVEL - I
539). The cells of nervous tissue that can undergo mitosis are
1) neurons 2) satillite cells
3) pericytes 4) glial cells
540). The axon teminates on other meurons or effectors by small branches called
1) terminal boutons
2) terminal arborization
3) dendrites
4) axon hillock
541). An interneuron is present between
1) axon of efferent neuron and dendrite of
afferent neuron
2) axon of afferent neuron and dendrite of
efferent neuron
3) motor neuron and effector organ
4) collateral of motor neuron and dendrite of
sensory neuron
542). Sarcolemma resembles axolemma in
1) presence of myelin sheath
2) presence of nodes of Ranvier
3) conduction of impulse
4) presence of collateral branches
543). Nissil bodies present in the cytoplasm of cyton
are rich in
1) centrioles 2) golgi bodies
3) ribosomes 4) lysosomes
544). The part of the perikaryon from which axon
arises is known as
1) nodes of Ranvier
2) collateral axon
3) soma 4) axon hillock
545). Vascular loose connective tissue sheath round
the axon is
1) axolemma 2) perineurium
3) epineurium 4) endoneurium
546). Neurotrasmitter stimulates
1) presynaptic membrane of dendrite
2) post synaptic membrane of axon
3) post synaptic membrane of dendrites
4) pre synaptic membrane of axon
LEVEL - II
547). Statement (S) : Schwann sheath prevents the
movement of Na+ and K+ ions in and out of axon
Reason (R) : Schwann sheath is composed
of only proteins
548). Arrange following from inner to outer of the
region in between the two successive nodes of
Ranvier in a myelinated neuron
A. Myelin sheath B. Neurilemma
C. Endoneurium D. Axolemma
1) DABC 2) DBCA
3) DCAB 4) DACB
549). Arrange the following parts of nerve cells
in correct order according to the pathway of
nerve impulse
A. Axon B. Cyton C. Synapse
D. Dendrites of other neuron
E. Axon terminals
1) BEACD 2) BAECD
3) DEACB 4) DCEAB
550). Arrange the following in a sequence according
to the direction of flow of impulse across the
synapse.
A. Post synapatic membrane
B. Synaptic cleft
C. Pre- synaptic membrane
D. Synaptic Knob
1)D-C-B-A 2) C-D-B-A
3) A-B-C-D 4) A-B-C-D
551). Arrange the following in a sequence according
to the nerve impulse transimission in a neuron
A. Telodendrite B. Dendrite
C. Perikaryon D. Axon
1) C-D-A-B 2) B-C-D-A
3) A-D-C-B 4) D-C-B-A
552). Arrange the following in a sequence from
inside to outside of the axon of a myelinated
neuron
A. Axolemma B. Axoplasm
C. Myelin sheath D. Neurilemma
1) D-C-A-B 2) B-A-C-D
3) A-B-D-C 4) B-A-D-C
553). Arrange the following parts of a neuron from
anterior end to posterior end in a sequence
A. Dendrite B. Axon hillock
C. Axon terminals D. Axon
1) C-D-B-A 2) C-D-B-A
3) A-B-D-C 4) A-D-B-C
554) Arrange the following in a sequence from
outside to inside of a nerve
A. Endoneurium B. Perineurium C. Fasciculus D. Epineurium 1) D-B-C-A 2) D-C-B-A
3) A-C-B-D 4) A-B-C-D
555) Identify the correct statements
I. Unmyelinated neurons are not seen in
peripheral nervous system
II. In autonomous nervous system only
myelinated neurons are present
III. In central nervous system both myelinated
and non-myelinated neurons are seen
1) I and II 2) I and III
3) II and III 4) I, II and III
556) The following are the statements about neurons
I. Neurons function as means of
communication between the receptors and
effectors.
II. Neurons which conduct impulses from
receptors towards central nervous system are
called sensory neurons
III. Neurons which connect sensory neurons to
Motor neurons are called Afferent neurons.
IV. Neurons which conduct impulses from the
central nervous system towards the effectors
are called efferent neurons
The incorrect statement is
1) I 2) II 3) III 4) IV
557) The following are the statements about
Neurons
I. A neuron may have none to many dendrites
but always has only one axon
II. A neuron having one dendrite is called
unipolar neuron
III. A neuron with two dendrites is called Bipolar neuron
IV. A neuron having many dendrites and one
axon is called multipolar neuron
Which of the above are correct
1) I and II 2) II and III
3) I and IV 4) I,II and IV
558) The following are the statements about
Neuroglia
I. Neuroglia are both Ectodermal and
Mesodermal in origin
II. The small tree like neuroglial cells are called
Microglia
III. The tall columnar ciliated neuroglial cells
are called ependymal cells
The incorrect statements is
1) I 2) II 3) III 4) All
Glial Cells:
•Glial cell of the central nervous system are oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, ependymal cells and microglia.
•Glial cells of the peripheral nervous system of satellite cells and schwann cells.
•The cells that produce the myelin sheath are oligodendrocytes.
•Star - shaped glial cells are astrocytes
•The glial cells which bind neurons to capillaries are astrocytes.
•The glial cells which form blood - brain barrier are astrocytes.
•Columnar epithelial cells lining the ventricles of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord are ependymal cells.
•The cells which faciliates the movement of cerebrospinal fluid are ependymal cells.
•Small elongated cells derived from mesoderm are microglia.
•The cells that represent mononuclear phagocytic system of nerve tissue are microglia.
•Microglia are derived from precursor cells in the bone marrow.
•Phagocytic glial cells are microglia
•The glial cells of peripheral nervous system surrounding the cell bodies of ganglia are satelite cells.
•The glial cells of peripheral surrounding axons are schwann cells.
•The layer of cell membranes of schwann cell unite and form a whitish myelin sheath around axon called myelin sheath.
•Outer most layer of schwann cells that contains cytoplasm and nucleus is called neurilemma or sheath of schwann.
•Gaps in the myelin sheath are called the nodes of Ranvier.
•The distance between the nodes is called an internode and consists of one schwann cell.
•Supporting cells are absent around the unmyelinated axons of the central nervous system.
Glial Cells:
LEVEL - I
559). Star shaped glial cells with many radiating process are
1) oligodendrocytes 2) astrocytes
3) microglia 4) satellite cells
560). The origin of non - impulse conducting cells of nervous system is
1) ectoderma 2) endodermal
3) mesodermal 4) ecto-mesodermal
561). The blood and brain barrier is formed by
1) astrocytes 2) microgleal cells 3) neurons 4) oligodendroglia
562). Which of the following cells represent the mononuclear phagocytic system
1) microglia 2) oligodendroglia 3) astrocytes 4) all neuroglial cells
563). Elongated glial cells of CNS, derived from mesoderm are
1) oligodendrocytes 2) ependymal cells 3) microgleal cells 4) astrocytes
564). Myelin sheath producing cells of axon of CNS are
1) astrocytes 2) ependymal cells
3) microglia 4) oligodendrocytes
565). The cells of central nervous system that they represent the mononuclear phagocytic system are
1) oligodendrocytes 2) ependymal cells
3) microglia 4) astrocytes
566). Microglia are derived from the precursor cells in the
1) bone marrow 2) liver
3) spleen 4) lymph nodes
567). Glial cells of the peripheral nervous system are the
1) microglia and astrocytes
2) oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells
3) myelinated fibres
4) satellite cells and schwann cells
568). One of the following non-impulse conduction
cells originates from the germ layer that forms
the muscles
1) microglia 2) astrocytes
3) schwann cells 4) ependymal cells
569). Precursors of myelin sheath in CNS are
1) microglia cells 2) oligodendrocytes
3) schwann cells 4) astrocytes
570). Ependyma in central nervous system made
up of
1) columnar epithelium 2) cuboidal epithelium
3) columnar ciliated epithelium
4) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
LEVEL - II
571). Statement (S) : Astrocytes act as blood brain barrier.
Reason (R): They are in contact with neurons and the basement membranes of blood capillaries
572). Statement (S) : Astrocytes protect the
neurons in the brain from toxins present in the blood
Reason (R) : Astrocytes form a part of the
blood brain barrier
573). Match the following : (EAMCET-2007)
Set - I Set - II
(a) astrocytes 1. Resting macrophages
(b) Microglia 2. Precursors of
Myelin sheath
(c) Oligodendrocytes 3. Set up currents
in cerebrospinal fluid
(d) Ependymal 4. Protects neurons
cells of brain from toxins
The correct match is
(1) a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1
(2) a-1 b-3 c-2 d-4
(3) a-3 b-2 c-4 d-1
(4) a-4 b-1 c-2 d-3
574). Match the following
List-I List-II
A. Oligodendrocytes I. Resting
macrophages
B. Astrocytes II. Precusors of myelin
sheaths
C. Ependyma III. Blood brain barrier
D. Microglia IV. Lining of ventricles
of brain
A B C D
1) II III I IV
2) III II I IV
3) II III IV I
4) III II IV I
Types of Neurons and Nerve Fibres
•Most neurons of the body are multipolar.
•Multipolar neurons have one axon and two or more dendrites.
•Bipolar neurons have one dendrite and one axon.
•Bipolar neurons are found in the retina of eye, inner ear and olfactory membrane.
•Unipolar neurons have a single process.
•Cytons of unipolar neurons found in the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves.
•Neurons of dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves also called pseudounipolar neurons ( they are sensory)
•Neurons that control effector organs by carrying impulses are motor (afferent) neurons.
•Neurons involved in the reception of sensory stimuli from the enviroment are sensory neurons (afferent)
•Sensory and motor neurons are connected by interneurons.
•Motor neurons and interneurons are multipolar.
•White matter of the brain and spinal cord contains myelinated axons and oligodendrocytes.
•Grey matter contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites and the unmyelinated axons and glial cells.
•White appearrance of white matter is due to myelin, grey apperance of grey matter is due to nissl bodies.
•Groups of nerve fibres in the central nervous system are called tracts.
•Aggregates of neuronal cell bodies in the central nervous system are called nuclei.
•Aggregates of neuronal cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system are called ganglia.
•Nerve is a bundles of nerve fibres.
•Loose connective tissue sheath surrounding a nerve fibre is endoneurium.
•A bundle of nerve fibres is called fascicle.
•Dense irregular connective tissue surrounding a fascicle is called perineurium.
•Dense irregular connective tissue surrounding all fascicles of a nerve is called epineurium.
•Myelinated nerve fibres present in cranial nerves and spinal nerves
•Unmyelinated fibres present in autonomic nerves.
•Myelin sheath around axons is produced in the CNS by oligodendrocytes and in the PNS by schwann cells
LEVEL - I
575). Axon arise from this part of perikaryon
1) axon hillcok 2) terminal bouton
3) nodes of Ranvier 4) synaptic cleft
576). Multipolar neurons are
1) sensory neurons and interneurons
2) efferent neurons and astrocytes
3) microglia and afferent neurons
4) motor neurons and interneurons
577). Nerve fibers are formed by
1) cytons 2) axons
3) dendrites 4) total neuron
578). The neurons with single axon and single
dendrite is
1) unipolar neuron
2) bipolar neuron
3) pseudounipolar neuron
4) multipolar neuron
579). Dorsal root nerve ganglia is an example for
1) apolar neuron
2) bipolar neuron
3) pseudounipolar neuron
4) multipolar neuron
580). Neurilemma is
1) schwann cell with cytoplasm and nucleus
2) lipid filled part of schwann cell
3) formed by astrocytes
4) formed by axon of neuron
581). Synapse is a wide gap present between
1) axons of two neurons
2) axon of a neuron and dendrite of another neuron
3) dendrites of two neurons
4) two cytons of two nerve cells
582). Schwann sheaths and nodes of Ranvier are absent in
1).White matter of central nervous system
2).Myelinated neurons
3).Grey matter with non medullated neurons 4).Motor neurons
583). Inter node consists of
1) one schwann cell
2) two schwann cells
3) many schwann cells
4) no schwann cells
584). Myelin sheath around axons is produced in the peripheral nervous system by
1) oligodendrocytes 2) schwann cells
3) astrocytes 4) ependymal cells
585). Bipolar neurons found in
1) retina of eye 2) inner ear
3) olfactory membrane 4) all
586). White matter contains
1) cell bodies and unmyelinated axons
2) dendrites and glial cells
3) neuronal cell bodies and dendrites
4) myelinated axons and oligodendrocytes
LEVEL - II
587). Arrange the following neurons in descending
order based on the number of dendrites they
possess
A. Bipolar neuron B. Unipolar neuron
C. Multipolar neuron
1) B-A-C 2) B-C-A
3) C-A-B 4) A-C-B
588). Read the following statements
I. Bipolar neuron contains a dendrite and an
axon
II.Pseudounipolar neuron has a dentrite and an
axon that arise from a common process
III. A neuron may be without dendrites but not
without axon
IV. Sometimes perikaryon itself acts as a receptor
The correct combination is
1) I and III 2) I, III and IV
3) II and IV 4) II and IV
KEY
Components of Nervous System Neuron:
539) 4 540) 2 541) 2 542) 3 543) 3 544) 4 545) 4 546) 3 547) 3 548) 3 549) 2 550) 1 551) 2 552) 2 553) 3 554) 1 555) 4 556) 3 557) 3 558) 2
Glial Cells:
559) 2 560) 4 561) 1 562) 1 563) 3 564) 4 565) 3 566) 1 567) 4 568) 1 569) 2 570) 3 571) 1 572) 1 573) 4 574) 3
Types of Neurons and Nerve Fibres
575) 1 576) 4 577) 2 578) 2 579) 3 580) 1 581) 2 582) 3 583) 1 584) 2 585) 4 586) 4 587) 3 588) 2
275) 2 276) 2 277) 3 278) 3 279) 2 280) 2 281) 3 282) 1 283) 3 284) 2 285) 2 286) 3 287) 4 288) 2
289) 4 290) 2 291) 1 292) 3 293) 4 294) 3 295) 1 296) 3 297) 4 298) 1 299) 1 300) 2 301) 1 302) 2
303) 3 304) 2 305) 3 306) 2 307) 2 308) 3 309) 1 310) 1 311) 3 312) 4 313) 2 314) 1 315) 1 316) 2
317) 1 318) 4 319) 4 320) 3 321) 1 322) 2 323) 3 324) 3 325) 4 326) 2 327) 1 328) 1 329) 1 330) 4
CONNECTIVE TISSUE 331) 3 332) 2 333) 3 334) 3 CELL 335) 3 EPITHELIUM 336) 3 337)1 TRIPLE MATCHING TYPE 338) 2 339) 1 340) 1 341) 1
SUPPORTIVE TISSUE 342) 2 343) 2 344) 2 345) 4 346) 2 347) 3 348) 1 349) 4 350) 4 351) 1 352) 3 353) 1 Hyaline Cartilage 354) 2 355) 4 356) 1 357) 2 358) 4 359) 1 360) 3 361) 1 362) 1
Elastic cartilage 363) 1 364) 3 365) 4 366) 4 367) 1 368) 1 369) 3
Fibrous cartilage 370) 2 371) 2 372) 1 373) 4 374) 1 375) 1
Bone 376) 2 377) 2 378) 2 379) 3 380) 2 381) 1 382) 3 383) 4 384) 1 385) 2 386) 1 387) 1 388) 2 389) 1 390) 2 391) 2 392) 3 393) 2 394) 1 395) 2 396) 1 397) 3 398) 1 399) 1
Structure of compact bone 400) 4 401) 1 402) 4 403) 4 404) 1 405) 4 406) 1 407) 3 408) 1 409) 2 410) 4 411) 3 412) 4
Chemical composition of bone 413) 1 414) 2
289) 4 290) 2 291) 1 292) 3 293) 4 294) 3 295) 1 296) 3 297) 4 298) 1 299) 1 300) 2 301) 1 302) 2
303) 3 304) 2 305) 3 306) 2 307) 2 308) 3 309) 1 310) 1 311) 3 312) 4 313) 2 314) 1 315) 1 316) 2
317) 1 318) 4 319) 4 320) 3 321) 1 322) 2 323) 3 324) 3 325) 4 326) 2 327) 1 328) 1 329) 1 330) 4
CONNECTIVE TISSUE 331) 3 332) 2 333) 3 334) 3 CELL 335) 3 EPITHELIUM 336) 3 337)1 TRIPLE MATCHING TYPE 338) 2 339) 1 340) 1 341) 1
SUPPORTIVE TISSUE 342) 2 343) 2 344) 2 345) 4 346) 2 347) 3 348) 1 349) 4 350) 4 351) 1 352) 3 353) 1 Hyaline Cartilage 354) 2 355) 4 356) 1 357) 2 358) 4 359) 1 360) 3 361) 1 362) 1
Elastic cartilage 363) 1 364) 3 365) 4 366) 4 367) 1 368) 1 369) 3
Fibrous cartilage 370) 2 371) 2 372) 1 373) 4 374) 1 375) 1
Bone 376) 2 377) 2 378) 2 379) 3 380) 2 381) 1 382) 3 383) 4 384) 1 385) 2 386) 1 387) 1 388) 2 389) 1 390) 2 391) 2 392) 3 393) 2 394) 1 395) 2 396) 1 397) 3 398) 1 399) 1
Structure of compact bone 400) 4 401) 1 402) 4 403) 4 404) 1 405) 4 406) 1 407) 3 408) 1 409) 2 410) 4 411) 3 412) 4
Chemical composition of bone 413) 1 414) 2
KEY
415) 4 416) 3 417) 3 418) 2 419) 1 420) 3 421) 3
FORMED ELEMENTS
422) 1 423) 2 424) 3 425) 3 426) 4 427) 1 428) 4 429) 3 430) 2 431) 3 432) 2 433) 2 434) 2
WBC
435) 2 436) 1 437) 4 438) 3 439) 2 440)1 441) 4 442) 2 443) 3 444) 2 445) 2 446) 1 447) 4 448) 3 449) 2 450) 3 451) 1 452) 4 453) 2 454) 3 455) 1 456) 1 457) 2 458) 3 459) 2 460) 1 461) 1 462) 1 463) 1 464) 1 465) 2 466) 1 467) 2 468) 2 469) 1 470) 4 471) 1 472) 4 473) 2 474) 2 475) 2 476) 2 477) 2
PLATELETES
478) 2 479) 3 480) 3 481) 4 482) 2 483) 3 484) 3 485) 3 486) 1
LYMPH
487) 2 488) 3 489) 1 490) 1
SKELETAL MUSCLE
491) 1 492) 4 493) 1 494) 1 495) 2 496) 4 497) 3 498) 3 499) 1 500) 2 501) 1 502) 4 503) 2 504) 1 505) 3 506) 1 507) 3 508) 4
VISCERAL MUSCLE
509) 3 510) 1 511) 1 512) 2 513) 4 514) 1 515) 1 516) 2 517) 1 518) 1 519) 1 520) 3
CARDIAC MUSCLE
521) 1 522) 2 523) 1 524) 3 525) 3 526) 3 527) 2 528) 3 529) 3 530) 3 531) 3 532) 2 533) 4 534) 2 535) 1 536) 3 537) 4 538) 1
ANIMAL ORGANISATION
LEVEL - I
275. Reticular fibers are made-up of
1) Actin 2) Collagen 3) Elastin 4) Myosin
276. Vasodilator secreted by mast cells is
1) Heparin 2) Histamines 3) Acetylcholine 4) Vasopressin
277. The tissue that forms the supporting frame work of haemopoitic organs is
1) Adipose tissue 2) Aereolar tissue 3) Reticular tissue 4) Jelly like tissue
278. Stroma of red bone marrow, spleen , lymph nodes are formed by
1) Epithelial tissue 2) Ependyma 3) Reticular tissue 4) Fibrocytes
279. Deeper region of dermis of skin is formed by
1) Reticular tissue 2) Dense irregular connective tissue 3) Dense regular connective tissue 4) Yellow elastic tissue
280. Among the four basic types of tissues, the matrix usually occupies much more space than cells in
1) epithelial tissues 2) connective tissues 3) muscular tissues 4) nervous tissues
281. The tissue that forms the supporting frame work of haemopoitic organs is
1) Adipose tissue 2) Aereolar tissue 3) Reticular tissue 4) Jelly like tissue
282. The plasma cells of areolar tissue are the descendents of
1) B cells 2) T cells 3) Mast cells 4) Monocytes
283. Stroma of lymph nodes are formed by
1) Epithelial tissue 2) Ependyma 3) Reticular tissue 4) Fibrocytes
284. Extremely thin fibres of connective tissue are
1) Collagen fibres 2) Retucular fibres 3) Elastic fibres 4) Myosin fibres
285. Heart valves are made by
1) Reticular tissue 2) Dense irregular connective tissue 3) Dense regular connective tissue 4) Yellow elastic tissue
286. All other connective tissues are derived from
1) Mucous connective tissue 2) Areolar tissue 3) Mesenchyme 4) Reticular tissue
287. Whartons jelly is
1) Mesenchyme of foetus 2) Areolar connective tissue of embryo 3) Adipose tissue of embryo 4) Mucous connective tissue of umbilical cord
288. Elastic ligaments present between vertebrae are made up of
1) Dense regular connective tissue 2) Elastic connective tissue 3) Reticular connective tissue 4) Dense irregular connective tissue
289. Ground substance of matrix of connective tissue is mainly contains
1) Water only 2) Polysacharides only 3) Proteins only 4) Water, polysacharides and proteins
290. Which of the following facilitates easy passage of plasma proteins, monocytes through capillary walls
1) Heparin 2) Bradykinin 3) Acetly choline 4) Haemolysin
291. Thinnest fibres of cinnective tissue are
1) Reticular fibres 2) Collagen fibres 3) Elastic fibres 4) Collagen & elastic fibres
292. Mesenchyme ground substance is
1) solid 2) fuild 3) semifluid 4) without reticular fibres
293. Cytoplasm of white adipose tissue is located
1)centrally 2) basal 3) tip of the cell 4) peripheral
294. Nucleus shape of plasma cells of connevtive tissue are
1) Oval 2) Round 3) Spherical 4) Absent
295. Blubber is
1) Adipose tissue of marine mammals 2) Adipose tissue of all mammals 3) Aereolar connective tissue 4) Reticular connective tissue
296. Nucleus of white adispose tissue is present at
1) Central part of cells 2) Base of the cells 3) Peripheral part of cell 4) Apical part of cells
297. Read the statements about brown adipose tissue and select in correct one
1) It is wide spread in foetus and infant 2) It contains numerous lipid droplets 3) It has rich blood supply 4) It has less mitochondria
298. The only formed elements that can move through the walls of the capillaries and the process is known is
1) Leucocytes and Diapedesis 2) Leucocytes and Diskinesis 3) Erythrocytes and Diaphyes 4) Erythrocytes and Diapedesis
299. The cells of areolar tissue which are chemically attracted by histamine to the site of injury are
1) Internal scavengers 2) Microscropic policemen 3) Megakaryocytes 4) Tissue fixed macrophages
300. Type of tissue present in umbilical cord is
1) Mesenchyme 2) Mucus connevtive tissue 3) Mature connective tissue 4) Loose connective tissue
301. Whartons jelly
1) Contains widely scattred fibroblast 2) A few fibroblast 3) Not having fibroblasts 4) Contains solid ground substances
302. Frame work of haemopoietic organs is made by
1) Aereolar connective tissue 2) Reticular connective tissue 3) Dense connective tissue 4) Elastic connective tissue
303. Reticular lamina of basement membrane of epithelial tissue is made by
1) Dense connective tissue 2) Areolar connective tissue 3) Reticular connective tissue 4) Elastic connective tissue
304. Type of tissue with more numerous denser fibers but fewer cells is
1) Reticular connective tissue 2) Dense connective tissue 3) Blood 4) Bone
305. Ligaments connects
1) Bone to muscle 2) Muscle to bone 3) Bone to bone 4) Tendons to bones
306. Ligaments are made by
1) Loose regular connective tissue 2) Dense regular connective tissue 3) Dense irregular connective tissue 4) Eleastic connective tissue
307. Joint capsule is made by
1) Dense regular connective tissue 2) Dense irregular connective tissue 3) Elastic connective tissue 4) Supportive tissue
308. Match the following
A) Umbilical cord 1) Reticular connective tissue
B) Haemopoietic tissue 2) Jelly like connective tissue
C) Brown fat 3) Adipose tissue
D) Mast cell 4) connective tissue
A B C D
1) 2 1 4 3
2) 1 2 3 4
3) 2 1 3 4
4) 1 4 2 3
309. Tendons are
1) Dense regular connective tissue 2) Dense irregular connective tissue 3) Dense recticular connective tissue 4) Supportive tissue
310. Vasodilating substance of mast cell is
1) Bradykinin 2) Heparin 3) Histolysins 4) hirudin
311. Following are the statements about adipose tissue
i) cell has a single large lipid droplet
ii) it has rich blood supply
iii) it is predominant in adult
iv) it generates considerable heat
Which of the above are the characteristics of WAT (white adipose tissue)
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) i and iv
312. The characters of connective tissue are
1) Large matrix 2) Rich blood supply 3) Derived from mesoderm 4) All the above
313. The tissue that occurs in the subcutaneous layer of the skin is
1) Dense fibrous tissue 2) Aereolar tissue 3) Reticular tissue 4) Tendon
314. The wandering cells in aereolar tissue
1) Macrophages 2) Monocytes 3) Histiocytes 4) Mast cells
315. The plasma cells of aereolar tissue are the descendents of
1) B cells 2) T cells 3) Mast cells 4) Monocytes
316. Extremely thin fibres of connective tissue are
1) collagen fibres 2) reticular fibres 3) elastic fibres 4) myosin fibres
LEVEL - II
317. Statement (S): The granules of mast cells secretes histamine and bradykinin
Reason ( R ) : Mast cell take part in allergy reactions and also help in body defence
318. The following are some statements regarding connective tissue proper
I) Mast cells secrete coagulant heparin
II) Plasma cells produce antibodies
III) Histiocytes are tissue fixed macrophages
Correct combination is
1) I, III 2) I, II 3) II, III 4) All
319. Match the following and choose the correct option
List - I List - II
A. Fibrinolysin I. Prevents clotting
B. Heparin II. Blood coagulation
C. Bradykinin III. Distruction of red blood cells
D. Thromboplastin IV. Dissolutionof old blood clots
V. Vasodilation
A B C D
1) IV I V III
2. III V I II
3) III II V I
4) IV I V II
320. Statement (S): Vocal cords can recoil to its original shape after being stretched
Reason ( R ) : Vocal cords are made by dense irregular connective tissue
321. Statement (S):In heart valves pulling forces are exerted in various directions
Reason (R ) : Heart valves are made by dense irregular connective tissue
322. Read the following statements about connective tissue and select correct combination
I) Fibroblast cells are most common cells
II) Histamines and bradykinin helps for causing inflammation.
III ) Monocytes turn into plasma cells after entering into connective tissue
1) All 2) I and II 3) II and III 4) I and III
323. Selecte incorrect statements about embryonic connective tissue
1) It is present in embryo and foetus stage
2) Mesenchyme tissue matrix contains reticular fibres
3) Mucus connective tissue is present in whartons jelly
4) Mesenchyme tissue gives rise to all other types
324. Match the following
Set - A Set - B
A. Adipocytes I. Bradykinin
B. Plasma cells II. Production of heat
C. Mast cells III. Engulf bacteria
D. Macrophages IV. Synthesize anti bodies
A B C D
1) II IV III I
2) I II III IV
3) II IV I III
4)IV II I III
325. Read the statements about adipose tissue and select correct statements
I. White adipose tissue is predominent type in adult
II. WAT - cells will have single small lipid droplet
III. BAT genarates considerable heat
1) I only 2) I and II 3) II and III 4) All
326. Pericardium is made by
1) Dense regular connective tissue 2) Dense irregular connective tissue 3) Elastic connective tissue 4) Reticular connective tissue
327. Select the correct about areolar connective tissue
I. It is most widely distributed tissue
II. It is made by collagen, elastic and reticular fibers
III. It is combined with adipose tissue and forms sub cutaneous layer
1) All 2) I and II only 3) III only 4) II, III only
328. Statement (S): Elastic connective tissue is yellow in colour
Reason ( R ) : It is having predominate elastic fibres
329 Statement (S): Elastic connective tissue can recoil to its original shape after being stretched
Reason ( R ) : It is made by predominate elastic fibres
330. Statement (S): BAT maintains the body temperature in adults aslo
Reason ( R ) : It generate the considerable heat in adults
CONNECTIVE TISSUE
331) (S): Plasma cells of areolar tissue provide immunity against diseases.
(R): They are the descendants of T - lympho cytes
332).(S): Heparin produced by basophils is an antico agulant.
(R): Heparin is also secreted by mast cells
333) (S): Reticulocytes cells are present in haemopoietic tissues.
(R): Reticulate cells are immature red blood cells.
334) (S): Neutrophils increase in number during infections
(R): Lymphocytes are phagocytic in function.
275. Reticular fibers are made-up of
1) Actin 2) Collagen 3) Elastin 4) Myosin
276. Vasodilator secreted by mast cells is
1) Heparin 2) Histamines 3) Acetylcholine 4) Vasopressin
277. The tissue that forms the supporting frame work of haemopoitic organs is
1) Adipose tissue 2) Aereolar tissue 3) Reticular tissue 4) Jelly like tissue
278. Stroma of red bone marrow, spleen , lymph nodes are formed by
1) Epithelial tissue 2) Ependyma 3) Reticular tissue 4) Fibrocytes
279. Deeper region of dermis of skin is formed by
1) Reticular tissue 2) Dense irregular connective tissue 3) Dense regular connective tissue 4) Yellow elastic tissue
280. Among the four basic types of tissues, the matrix usually occupies much more space than cells in
1) epithelial tissues 2) connective tissues 3) muscular tissues 4) nervous tissues
281. The tissue that forms the supporting frame work of haemopoitic organs is
1) Adipose tissue 2) Aereolar tissue 3) Reticular tissue 4) Jelly like tissue
282. The plasma cells of areolar tissue are the descendents of
1) B cells 2) T cells 3) Mast cells 4) Monocytes
283. Stroma of lymph nodes are formed by
1) Epithelial tissue 2) Ependyma 3) Reticular tissue 4) Fibrocytes
284. Extremely thin fibres of connective tissue are
1) Collagen fibres 2) Retucular fibres 3) Elastic fibres 4) Myosin fibres
285. Heart valves are made by
1) Reticular tissue 2) Dense irregular connective tissue 3) Dense regular connective tissue 4) Yellow elastic tissue
286. All other connective tissues are derived from
1) Mucous connective tissue 2) Areolar tissue 3) Mesenchyme 4) Reticular tissue
287. Whartons jelly is
1) Mesenchyme of foetus 2) Areolar connective tissue of embryo 3) Adipose tissue of embryo 4) Mucous connective tissue of umbilical cord
288. Elastic ligaments present between vertebrae are made up of
1) Dense regular connective tissue 2) Elastic connective tissue 3) Reticular connective tissue 4) Dense irregular connective tissue
289. Ground substance of matrix of connective tissue is mainly contains
1) Water only 2) Polysacharides only 3) Proteins only 4) Water, polysacharides and proteins
290. Which of the following facilitates easy passage of plasma proteins, monocytes through capillary walls
1) Heparin 2) Bradykinin 3) Acetly choline 4) Haemolysin
291. Thinnest fibres of cinnective tissue are
1) Reticular fibres 2) Collagen fibres 3) Elastic fibres 4) Collagen & elastic fibres
292. Mesenchyme ground substance is
1) solid 2) fuild 3) semifluid 4) without reticular fibres
293. Cytoplasm of white adipose tissue is located
1)centrally 2) basal 3) tip of the cell 4) peripheral
294. Nucleus shape of plasma cells of connevtive tissue are
1) Oval 2) Round 3) Spherical 4) Absent
295. Blubber is
1) Adipose tissue of marine mammals 2) Adipose tissue of all mammals 3) Aereolar connective tissue 4) Reticular connective tissue
296. Nucleus of white adispose tissue is present at
1) Central part of cells 2) Base of the cells 3) Peripheral part of cell 4) Apical part of cells
297. Read the statements about brown adipose tissue and select in correct one
1) It is wide spread in foetus and infant 2) It contains numerous lipid droplets 3) It has rich blood supply 4) It has less mitochondria
298. The only formed elements that can move through the walls of the capillaries and the process is known is
1) Leucocytes and Diapedesis 2) Leucocytes and Diskinesis 3) Erythrocytes and Diaphyes 4) Erythrocytes and Diapedesis
299. The cells of areolar tissue which are chemically attracted by histamine to the site of injury are
1) Internal scavengers 2) Microscropic policemen 3) Megakaryocytes 4) Tissue fixed macrophages
300. Type of tissue present in umbilical cord is
1) Mesenchyme 2) Mucus connevtive tissue 3) Mature connective tissue 4) Loose connective tissue
301. Whartons jelly
1) Contains widely scattred fibroblast 2) A few fibroblast 3) Not having fibroblasts 4) Contains solid ground substances
302. Frame work of haemopoietic organs is made by
1) Aereolar connective tissue 2) Reticular connective tissue 3) Dense connective tissue 4) Elastic connective tissue
303. Reticular lamina of basement membrane of epithelial tissue is made by
1) Dense connective tissue 2) Areolar connective tissue 3) Reticular connective tissue 4) Elastic connective tissue
304. Type of tissue with more numerous denser fibers but fewer cells is
1) Reticular connective tissue 2) Dense connective tissue 3) Blood 4) Bone
305. Ligaments connects
1) Bone to muscle 2) Muscle to bone 3) Bone to bone 4) Tendons to bones
306. Ligaments are made by
1) Loose regular connective tissue 2) Dense regular connective tissue 3) Dense irregular connective tissue 4) Eleastic connective tissue
307. Joint capsule is made by
1) Dense regular connective tissue 2) Dense irregular connective tissue 3) Elastic connective tissue 4) Supportive tissue
308. Match the following
A) Umbilical cord 1) Reticular connective tissue
B) Haemopoietic tissue 2) Jelly like connective tissue
C) Brown fat 3) Adipose tissue
D) Mast cell 4) connective tissue
A B C D
1) 2 1 4 3
2) 1 2 3 4
3) 2 1 3 4
4) 1 4 2 3
309. Tendons are
1) Dense regular connective tissue 2) Dense irregular connective tissue 3) Dense recticular connective tissue 4) Supportive tissue
310. Vasodilating substance of mast cell is
1) Bradykinin 2) Heparin 3) Histolysins 4) hirudin
311. Following are the statements about adipose tissue
i) cell has a single large lipid droplet
ii) it has rich blood supply
iii) it is predominant in adult
iv) it generates considerable heat
Which of the above are the characteristics of WAT (white adipose tissue)
1) i and ii 2) ii and iii 3) i and iii 4) i and iv
312. The characters of connective tissue are
1) Large matrix 2) Rich blood supply 3) Derived from mesoderm 4) All the above
313. The tissue that occurs in the subcutaneous layer of the skin is
1) Dense fibrous tissue 2) Aereolar tissue 3) Reticular tissue 4) Tendon
314. The wandering cells in aereolar tissue
1) Macrophages 2) Monocytes 3) Histiocytes 4) Mast cells
315. The plasma cells of aereolar tissue are the descendents of
1) B cells 2) T cells 3) Mast cells 4) Monocytes
316. Extremely thin fibres of connective tissue are
1) collagen fibres 2) reticular fibres 3) elastic fibres 4) myosin fibres
LEVEL - II
317. Statement (S): The granules of mast cells secretes histamine and bradykinin
Reason ( R ) : Mast cell take part in allergy reactions and also help in body defence
318. The following are some statements regarding connective tissue proper
I) Mast cells secrete coagulant heparin
II) Plasma cells produce antibodies
III) Histiocytes are tissue fixed macrophages
Correct combination is
1) I, III 2) I, II 3) II, III 4) All
319. Match the following and choose the correct option
List - I List - II
A. Fibrinolysin I. Prevents clotting
B. Heparin II. Blood coagulation
C. Bradykinin III. Distruction of red blood cells
D. Thromboplastin IV. Dissolutionof old blood clots
V. Vasodilation
A B C D
1) IV I V III
2. III V I II
3) III II V I
4) IV I V II
320. Statement (S): Vocal cords can recoil to its original shape after being stretched
Reason ( R ) : Vocal cords are made by dense irregular connective tissue
321. Statement (S):In heart valves pulling forces are exerted in various directions
Reason (R ) : Heart valves are made by dense irregular connective tissue
322. Read the following statements about connective tissue and select correct combination
I) Fibroblast cells are most common cells
II) Histamines and bradykinin helps for causing inflammation.
III ) Monocytes turn into plasma cells after entering into connective tissue
1) All 2) I and II 3) II and III 4) I and III
323. Selecte incorrect statements about embryonic connective tissue
1) It is present in embryo and foetus stage
2) Mesenchyme tissue matrix contains reticular fibres
3) Mucus connective tissue is present in whartons jelly
4) Mesenchyme tissue gives rise to all other types
324. Match the following
Set - A Set - B
A. Adipocytes I. Bradykinin
B. Plasma cells II. Production of heat
C. Mast cells III. Engulf bacteria
D. Macrophages IV. Synthesize anti bodies
A B C D
1) II IV III I
2) I II III IV
3) II IV I III
4)IV II I III
325. Read the statements about adipose tissue and select correct statements
I. White adipose tissue is predominent type in adult
II. WAT - cells will have single small lipid droplet
III. BAT genarates considerable heat
1) I only 2) I and II 3) II and III 4) All
326. Pericardium is made by
1) Dense regular connective tissue 2) Dense irregular connective tissue 3) Elastic connective tissue 4) Reticular connective tissue
327. Select the correct about areolar connective tissue
I. It is most widely distributed tissue
II. It is made by collagen, elastic and reticular fibers
III. It is combined with adipose tissue and forms sub cutaneous layer
1) All 2) I and II only 3) III only 4) II, III only
328. Statement (S): Elastic connective tissue is yellow in colour
Reason ( R ) : It is having predominate elastic fibres
329 Statement (S): Elastic connective tissue can recoil to its original shape after being stretched
Reason ( R ) : It is made by predominate elastic fibres
330. Statement (S): BAT maintains the body temperature in adults aslo
Reason ( R ) : It generate the considerable heat in adults
CONNECTIVE TISSUE
331) (S): Plasma cells of areolar tissue provide immunity against diseases.
(R): They are the descendants of T - lympho cytes
332).(S): Heparin produced by basophils is an antico agulant.
(R): Heparin is also secreted by mast cells
333) (S): Reticulocytes cells are present in haemopoietic tissues.
(R): Reticulate cells are immature red blood cells.
334) (S): Neutrophils increase in number during infections
(R): Lymphocytes are phagocytic in function.
CONNECTIVETISSUE
SUPPORTIVE TISSUE
Cartilage
LEVEL - I
342) The matrix of cartilage is secreted by
1) chondrocytes 2) chondroblasts
3) osteoblasts 4)osteocytes
343) Gristle is derived from
1)ectoderm 2)mesoderm 3)endoderm 4)ecto-endodermal
344). The outer covering of gristle is
1) periosteum 2).perichondrium 3) endosteum 4).meninx
345). This part of cartilage receives direct blood supply
1) lacunae 2)chondrocytes 3) chondrin 4)perichondrium
346). onnective tissues are vascular but avascular connective tissue is
1) dense regular connective tissue
2) cartilage 3) bone
4) dense irregular connective tissue
347). More commonly the growth of cartilage is
1) interstitial growth 2) apical growth
3) appositional growth 4) extra cellular growth
348). The growth of cartilage resulting from the mitotic divisions and reactivation of preexisting chondrocytes is
1) interstitial growth 2) apical growth
3) appositional growth 4) extra cellular growth
349). Matrix of cartilage differs from matrix of bone in not having
1) collagen fibres 2) elastic fibres
3) lacunae 4) blood vessels
350). Growth of the gristle is promoted by
1) osteoblasts 2) chondrocytes
3) fibroblasts 4) perichondroblasts
351). Perichondrium covering the cartilage is made up of
1) irregular white fibrous tissue
2) yellow elastic tissue
3) regular white fibrous tissue
4) reticular connective tissue
LEVEL - II
352). The following are the statements about gristle.
I. It is semirigid and some what flexible supportive tissue, which can withstand compression and deformation forces that act on it
II). Cartilage draws nourishment from perichondrium
III) Lacunae present in the matrix enclose chodroblasts.
IV) Perichondroblasts promote the growth of cartilage
Choose the correct statements
1) I, II 2) II , IV
3) I, II, IV 4) I, II, III and IV
353). Statement (S) : Gristle draws nourishment from perichondrium
Reason (R) : Cartilage does not have blood vessels but peri-chondrium contains blood vessels
Hyaline Cartilage
LEVEL - I
354). Hyaline cartilage without perichondrium is present in
1) pubic symphysis 2) articular cartilage
3) costal cartilage 4) epiglottis
355). Costal cartilage is seen in
1) tips of long bones 2) centre of the sternum
3) between joints 4) ventral ends of ribs
356). The weakest cartilage is
1) hyaline cartilage 2) elastic cartilage
3) fibrous cartilage 4) calcified cartilage
357). Endoskeleton of embryos and bronchial rings are formed by
1) fibrous cartilage 2) hyaline cartilage
3) calcified cartilage 4) elastic cartilage
358). Bluish white translucent cartilage is found in
1) vocal cards 2) epiglottis
3) periosteum 4) coastal cartilage
359). The cartilage that supports larger branchioles is without
1) elastin fibres 2) collagen fibres
3) perichondrium 4) chondroblasts
360). Cartilage that provides strength and elasticity is found in
1) public symphysis 2) costal cartilage
3) eustachian tubes
4) embryonic skeleton of vertebrates
LEVEL - II
361). The following are the statements about Hyaline cartilage. Identify the correct statements.
I. It is light bluish - white and translucent
II. 1 to 8 Chondrocytes are enclosed in each Lacuna in the matrix
III. It is the strongest and least flexible of all types of cartilage
1) I only 2) II and III
3) I and III 4) I,II and III
362). Statement (S) :Hyaline cartilage is the weak est among all types of cartilage
Reason(R) : Very thin collagen fibres are present in its matrix
Elastic cartilage
LEVEL - I
363). The only cartilage with yellow fibers is
1) elastic cartilage 2) hyaline cartilage
3) fibrous cartilage 4) all the above
364). The cartilage present in epiglottis is
1) hyaline 2) fibrous
3) elastic 4) calcified
365). Yellow fibres of cartilage
1) made up of collagen
2) occur in bundles
3) arranged parallel to one another
4) have forked ends
LEVEL - II
366). The following are the statements about Elastic cartilage. Find the false statement.
I Elastic and collagen fibres are present in the matrix
II. It exhibits ability to regain the original shape after distortion
III. It lacks perichondrium in the adult
1) All 2) I 3) II 4) III
367). Assertion(A): Elastic cartilage exhibits high degree of resillience
Reason(R) : Elastic cartilage is the only type of cartilage which contains elastic fibres.
1) Both A and R are correct R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is correct, but R is not correct
4) Both A and B are not correct
368) Statement (S) : External ear lobe shows a high degree of resilience
Reason (R) : External ear lobe contains elastic cartilage which has elastic fibres
369) Statement (S) : External ear lobe shows flexibility and regains its shape after distortion.
Reason (R): External ear lobe is made of hyaline cartilage.
Fibrous cartilage
LEVEL - I
370). Matirx has a dense network of coarse collagen fibres in
1) elastic cartilage 2) fibrous cartilage
3) hyaline cartilage 4) calcified cartilage
371). Intervertebral discs are made-up of a cartilage called
1) nuclei pulposi 2) fibrous cartilage 3) elastic cartilage 4) hyaline cartilage
372). The strogest cartilage is without
1) perichondrium 2) collagen fibres
3) lacunae 4) chondrocytes
373). Gristle present in intervertebral discs is characterised by
1) Presence of yellow and white fibres widely
2) Absence of white fibres and perichondrium
3) Absence of lacunae and blood vessels
4) Absence of blood vessels, elastic fibres and perichondrium
LEVEL - II
374). The following are the statements about fibrous cartilage
I. It is an inelastic cartilage
II. Its matrix consists of very large number of bundles of elastic fibres
III. It is totally without blood capilaries and lacks perichondrium in the adult
Which of the above are correct
1) I and III 2) I and II
3) II and III 4) All
375). Statement (S) : Fibrous cartilage is the stron gest and least flexible of all types of cartilage
Reason (R) : Fibrous cartilage consists of very large number of bundles of collagen fibres in the matrix but elastic fibres are absent
Bone
Types of Bones
LEVEL - I
376. Irregular bones are
1) wrist and ankle bones 2) vertebrae
3) cranial bones 4) humerus
377. The swollen terminals of long bones are called
1) diaphysis 2) epiphysis
3) occipital condyles 4) shaft
378. Red bone marrow is present in
1) shaft of the bone 2) epiphysis
3) diaphysis 4) compact bone
379. Cells involved in the resorption and remodelling of bone tissue are
1) osteocytes 2) osteoblast
3) osteoclasts 4) chondrocytes
380. Appositition growths of cartilage results from the
1) maturation of chondocytes
2) differentiration of perichondrial cells
3) reactivation of chondrocytes
4) mitotic divisions of chondrocytes
381. Intramembranous ossification of mesenchyme occurs in the formation of
1) investing bones 2) replacing bones
3) sesamoid bones 4) cartilage bones
382. Short bones and long bones form good example for
1) investing bones 2) dermal bones
3) Cartilage bones 4) calcified cartilage
383. Patella (knee cap) form good example for the
1) flat bone 2) short bone
3) spongy bone 4) sesamoid bone
384. Marrow cavity of the bone is confined to the
1) Diaphysis 2) Metaphysis
3) Epiphysis 4) Zygapophysis
385. The region between diaphysis and epiphysis of bone is
1) Zygapophysis 2)Metaphysis
3) endosteum 4) periosteum
386. Bones can grow in thickness only by the
1) Appositional growth
2) super positional growth
3) interstitial growth
4) intramembranous ossification
387. Bones of cranium are
1) membranous bones and flat bones
2) dermal bones and flat bones
3) investing bones and irregular bones
4) short bones and cartilage bones
388. Appositional growth of bone resulting from the
1) maturation of osteoblasts
2) differentiation of periosteal cells
3) reactivation of osteocytes
4) inactivation of periosteocytes
389. Endochondral bones are formed due to ossification within the
1) hyaline cartilage 2) fibrous cartilage
3) elastic cartilage 4) calcified cartilage
390. Study of bone is called
1) chondrology 2) osteology
3) haematology 4) palaeontology
391. Irregular cancellous bones are
1) ribs 2) vertebrae
3) diaphysis 4) bones of cranium
392. Vertebrae of mammals are
1) irregular bones without haemopoietic tissue
2) flat bones without haemopoietic tissue
3) irregular bones with haemopoietic tissue
4) flat bones with haemopoietic tissue
393. Bones which are formed by membranous ossification of connective tissue of the dermis in skin are
1) endochondral bones 2) investing bones
3) cartilage bones 4) replacing bones
394. Flat bones among the following
1) cranial bones 2) vertebrae
3) carpals 4) radio-ulna
LEVEL - II
395. The following are the statements about Osseous tissue.
I. Bones formed from cartilage are replacing bones
II. Bones directly formed from mesenchyma are cartilage bones
III. Bones formed from tendons are called sesamoid bones
Which of the above are correct
1) I and II 2) I and III
3) II and III 4) All
396. Assertion(S) : Ends of vertebrae are considered as cancellous bones
Reason (R) : They have irregular matrix with irregular spaces filled with red bone marrow
397. Statement (S) : Membrane bones are also called as investing bones
Reason(R ): Membrane bones after their formation they sink deeper and form covering over the underlying Bones
398. Statement (S) :Bones does not grow in length in the adult
Reason(R ): The epiphyseal plate disappears leaving epiphyseal line
399. Correct sequence of various regions in a thigh bone of mammals is
a) diaphysis b) epiphysis c) metaphysis
1) b - c- a- c - b 2) c- a- b - a- c
3) a - b - c- a - b 4) c - b - a- b- a
Structure of compact bone
LEVEL - I
400. Haversian systems are found in
1) periosteum 2) gristle
3) compact bone 4) diaphysis
401. Two osteons are interconnected by
1) volkmans canal 2)canaliculi
3) haversian canal 4) lacunae
402. Haversian canal is connected to lacunae through
1) volkman`s canals 2) marrow cavity
3) osteoblasts 4) canaliculi
403. In a haversian system of bone the structures that run through the lamellae connect
1) lacunae of one concentric ring only
2) haversian canals of two osteons
3) haversian canals and volkmans canals
4) lacunae with one another and with the haversian canal
404. Diaphysis is the part of bone present between
1) two epiphyses
2) periosteum and endosteum
3) endosteum and marrow cavity
4) epiphysis and marrow cavity
405. The matix of bone is not constituted by
1) osteoblasts 2) concentric bone lamellae
3) osteocytes
4) perichondroblasts
406. Periosteum on the outer suface of bone is
1) irregular fibrous connective tissue sheath
2) regular fibrous connective tissue sheath
3) reticular connective tissue
4) yellow elastic connective tissue
LEVEL - II
407). Following are the statemetns about Osseous tissue
I. The structural unit of cancellous bone is osteon
II. Major portion of bone matrix in compact bone is calcium phosphate
III. Haversian canals of neighbouring haversian systems are connected by volkman`s canals
IV. Bones directly formed from dermis are called endochondral bones
The correct statements are
1) All 2) I and IV
3) II and III 4) III and IV
408). Statement (S) :The matrix of the bone is extremely hard with the great tensile and compressional strengths
Reason (R ): The concentric bone lamellae with large number of collagen fibres constitute the matrix of the bone
409). Statement (S) : All compact bones are mostly non- haemopoietic in function.
Reason (R): Red bone marrow is haemopoietic tissue.
410). Arrange the following layers/ parts in the cross section of compact bone of mammals from outside to inside
a) interstitial lamellae b) periosteum
c) endosteum
d) inner circumferential lamellae
e) outer circumferential lamellae
1) b -d - a- c- e 2) c - b- a- d- e
3) a - d- b- c - e 4) b- e- a- d - c
411). Th folllowing are the statements about Bone
I. Volkman`s canals are the transverse canals that connect Haversian canals
II. Osseous tissue is non-vascular
III. Bone forming cells are osteocytes.
The incorrect statements are
1) I and II 2) I and III
3) II and III 4) All
412). The following are the statements about bone
I. The bone marrow cavity is surrounded by endosteum
II. Bone forming cells are called osteoblasts.
III. Haversian and Volkman`s canals are present in the bone
Which of the above are correct
1) I and II 2) I and III
3) II and III 4) All the above
Chemical composition of bone
LEVEL - I
413) The major organic substance of the bone is
1) collagen 2) calcium phosphate
3) calcium carbonate 4) hydroxyapatite
414) Complex salt Hydroxyapatite of bone is formed by
1) Carbonates of calcium
2) Phosphates of calcium
3) Chondroitin - 4 -sulphate
4) Hyaluronic acid
Fluid Tissues - Blood
Plasma
LEVEL - I
415). The most abundant plasma protein is
1) fibrinogen 2) prothrombin
3) globulin 4) albumin
416) pH of blood plasma is
1) 4.7 2) 5.6 3) 7.4 4) 8.2
417). Study of blood is called
1) Osteology 2) Chondrology
3) Haematology 4) Angiology
418). Following serum proteins function as antibodies
1) Albumins 2) Globulins
3) Prothrombins 4) Fibrinogens
419). Oedema occurs due to
1) Accumulation of tissue fluid in the tissue space due to decrease in plasma proteins in capillaries
2) Accumulation of tissue fluid in the tissue spaces due to increase in plasma proteins in capillaries
3) Accumulation of tissue fluid in the tissue spaces due to increased re-entry of water into capillaries
4) Accumulation of the tissue fluid in capillaries due to decrease of proteins in tissue spaces
420). Immunoglobulins are
1) a - globulins 2) b - globulins
3) g - globulins 4) d - globulins
LEVEL - II
421). Statement (S) : Decrease in plasma proteins causes swelling of tissues called oedema.
Reason (R) : Decrease in plasma proteins results in increased reentry of water from the tissue fluid in to blood capillaries
Formed Elements
RBC
LEVEL - I
422). An increase in RBC number is
1) polycythemia 2) erythrocytopenia 3) leukemia 4) anaemia
423). The percentage of total blood volume occupied by RBC is called
1) buffycoat 2) haematocrit
3) haemostat 4) erythrocrit
424). If a sample of blood is centrifuged in a glass tube the layers formed from the bottom to top serially are
1) buffy coat, haematocrit and plasma
2) plasma, buffy coat and haemotocrit
3) haemotocrit, buffy coat and plasma
4) buffy coat, plasma and haematocrit
425). Buffycoat of a healthy person includes
1) 10% of blood volume
2) 100% of blood volume
3) 1% of blood volume
4) 5 % of blood volume
426). In the earliest stages of embryogenesis, blood cells arise from the
1) liver 2) spleen
3) bone marrow 4) yolk sac mesoderm
427). Advantage in the biconcave shape of RBC is that it provides
1) large surface to volume ratio
2) large volume to pressure ratio
3) large size to surface ratio
4) large size to volume ratio
428). Plasma memberane of RBC is permeable to
1) O2 and CO2 2) HCO3-
3) Cl- 4) All the above
429). RBC of mammals are produced in the following organs during embryonic development
1) liver and bone marrow
2) spleen and bone marrow
3) liver and spleen
4) liver, spleen and bone marrow
430). The destruction of RBC is called
1) haemostasis 2) haemolysis
3) homeostasis 4) erythrolysis
431). Vitamins required for the maturation of RBC
1) pyridoxine and cyanacobalamin
2) folic acid and biotin
3) cyanacobalamin and folacin
4) pantothenic acid and riboflavin
432). Which of the following haemopoietic organ does not produce leucocytes in adults
1) spleen 2) liver
3) lymph nodes 4) bone marrow
LEVEL - II
433). Statement (S) : Reticulocytes cells are present in haemopoietic tissues.
Reason (R): Reticular cells support frame work of hemopoitic tissue
434). Arrange the following haemopoitic organs/ tissues in a correct order from the earliest stage of embryonic development to the adult stage
a) liver and spleen b) bone marrow c) yolk sac mesoderm
1) a -c - b 2) c - a- b
3) c - b- a 4) b- c- a
WBC
LEVEL - I
435). Leucocytes which increase in number during helminthic infections and allergic reaction are
1) lymphocytes 2) eosinophils
3) neutrophils 4) monocytes
436). Polymorphic blood cells are
1) WBC 2) RBC
3) Thrombocytes 4) Platelets
437). Least number of WBC
1) eosinophils 2) neutrophils 3) monocytes 4) basophils
438). Vasodilators are secreted by
1) monocytes 2) neutrophils 3) basophils
4) all types of granulocytes
439). The microscopic police men are
1) lymphocytes 2) neutrophils 3) basophils 4) monocytes
440). Among WBC, spherical cells with spherical nucleus and scanty peripheral cytoplasm are the
1) lymphocytes 2) monocytes
3) basophils 4) eosinophils
441). Macrophages and histiocytes are modified
1) basophils 2) neutrophils 3) megakaryocytic cells 4) monocytes
442). Movement of WBC through the walls of the capillaries is called
1) leucocytosis 2) diapedesis
3) leucopedesis 4) haemopedesis
443). Abnormal increase in the number of leucocytes is called
1) leucopaenia 2) polycythemia
3) leucocytosis 4) leucocytopaenia
444). Non phagocytic cells are
1) histiocytes 2) basophils
3) acidophils 4) neutrophils
445). Basophils are comparable to
1) histiocytes 2) mast cells
3) plasma cells 4) lymphocytes
446). Nucleus of the largest and most motile leucocytes is
1) 3 to 5 lobed 2) reniformed
3) oval 4) bilobed
447). Clinical indication of parasitic infection is
1) leukemia 2) thrombocythemia
3) polycythemia 4) eosinophilia
448). Granules present in the granulocytes are
1) volutin granules, nissl granules
2) chromophilic granules, volutin granules
3) specific granules, azurophilic granules
4) haemozoin granules, nissi’s granules
449). In the cytoplasm small specific granules more abundant than azurophilic granules in
1) eosinophils 2) neutrophils
3) basophils 4) large granular lymphocytes
450). The specific granules are fewer and irregular in size and shape in
1) Neutrophils 2) eosinophils
3) basophils 4) large granular lymphocytes
451). Dead cells of the pus are
1) Neutrophils 2) basophils
3) eosinophils 4) large granular lymphocytes
452). Active phagocytes of the blood are
1) basophils 2) eosinophils
3) monocytes 4) neutrophils
453). Nucleus of the microscopic policeman of blood has
1) irregular lobes 2) Two - five lobes
3) no lobes 4) one lobe
454). The only type of leucocytes that return from the tissues back to blood after diapedesis are
1) basophils 2) neutrophils
3) lymphocytes 4) monocytes
455). Fibrinolysin which dissolves old blood clots in the circulating blood is produced by
1) Leucocytes in which cytoplasmic granules stain with eosin
2) Leucocytes which have a bean shaped nucleus
3) The structures that are fomed from megakaryocytes
4) Leucocytes which are called microscopic policeman
LEVEL - II
456). Statement (S) : Granulocytes are also called polymorphonuclear leucocytes
Reason (R) : Their nuclei occur in different shapes
457). Statement (S) : Heparin produced by basophils is an anticoagulant.
Reason (R): Heparin is also secreted by mast cells
458) Statement (S) : Acidophils increase in number during infections
Reason (R): Lymphocytes are phagocytic in function.
459). Statement (S) : Eosinophilia occurs at the time of infection or allergy
Reason (R) : Eosinophils produce fibrinolysin that dissolve old blood clots
460). Statement (S) : Basophils of blood are comparable to mast cells of connective tissue
Reason (R) : In injured tissues basophils secrete heparin, histamine and bradykinin
461). Statement (S) : Acidophils dissolve old blood clots present in the circulating blood
Reason (R) : Eosinophils produce fibrinol ysin.
462). Statement (S) : Neutrophils are called microscopic policemen.
Reason (R) : During infection neutrophils increase in number and engulf becteria by the process of phagocytosis and fight against infection.
463). Statement (S) : Monocytes are described as internal scavangers.
Reason(R) : Monocytes removed dead cells and toxic substances by phagocytosis
464). Arrange the following in descending order . according to their percentage in total count of leucocytes in blood
A. Acidophils B. Neutrophils
C. Lymphocytes D. Monocytes
E. Basophils
1) BCDAE 2) DCABE
3) EADCB 4) BDCAE
465). The correct sequence of WBC in relation to percentage of their occurrence is
1).Neutrophils - Basophils - Monocytes - eosinophils- Lymphocytes
2).Neutrophils- Lymphocytes- Monocytes - Eosinophils - Basophils
3).Basophils - lymphocytes- Monocytes- Neutrophils- eosinophils
4).Eosinophils- Lymphocytes -Basophils - Neutrophils-Monocytes
466). Arrange the following formed elements in a de scending order based on their number
a) thrombocytes b) neutrophils
c) erythrocytes d) eosinophils
e) basophils f) lymphocytes
g) monocytes
1) c - a- b- f- g- d- e
2) b - d- c- a - g- e- f
3) c - a- b - e- d- f- g
4) d - a- b- e- c- g- f
467). Arrange the following in descending order according to their percentages in the total leucocyte count of the blood
A. Basophils B. Neutrophils
C. Monocytes D. Lymphocytes
E. Acidophils
1)A-E-C-D-B 2) B-D-C-E-A
3) D-B-C-A-E 4) A-D-B-C-E
468). Identify the features of microscopic policemen
A. Nucleus is entire, non lobed
B. Most abundant WBC
C. Stainable with neutral dyes
D. They contain histamine
The correct combination is
1) A and B 2) B and C
3) C and D 4) B and D
469). Identify the features of internal scavengers
I. The largest agranulocytes
II. Stained with acidic dyes
III. Most abundant among WBC
IV. Reniform nucleus
1) I and IV 2) II and III
3) I and II 4) III and IV
470). The following are the statements about blood
I. The abundant blood cells in granulocytes are Neutrophils
II. Basophils are present in very less number in the blood
III. Acidophils are considered as internal scavangers
IV. The pH of blood plasma is 7.4
The correct statements are
1) II and III 2) II and IV
3) III and IV 4) I, II and IV
471). Identify a wrong statement from the following
1. Antigen and antibody complexes formed in the blood are removed by neutrophils
2. Monocytes are the largest WBC with reniform nucleus
3. Lymphocytes are with spherical nucleus and scanty cytoplasm.
4. Erythrocytes constitute about 90% of the total blood cells
472). Match the following
List -I List-II
A. Monocytes I. Secretes histamines and bradykinins
B. Basophils II. Most mobile and phagocytic agranulocytes
C. Lymphocytes III. Produce antibodies
D. Neutrophils IV. Phagocytic granulocytes
V. Engulf antigen antibody complexes
A B C D
1) IV II III I
2) II III V IV
3) IV I III II
4) II I III IV
473). Match the following
List-I List-II
A. Lymphocytes I. Microscopic
policemen
B. Monocytes II. Immunity
C.Neutrophils III.Internal scavangers
D. Eosinophils IV. Removal of antigen and antibody
complexes
The correct match is
A B C D
1) IV I III II
2) II III I IV
3) II I IV III
4) III II I IV
474). Match the following
List-I List-II
A. Monocytes I. Antibodies
B. Basophils II. Histiocytes
C. Blood platelets III. Mast cells
D. B-Lymphocytes IV. Thrombinase
The correct match is
A B C D
1) III II IV I
2) II III IV I
3) V IV III II
4) IV V II I
475). Match the following
List -I List-II
A. Anticoagulant I. Brandykinin
B. Vasodilator II. B-Lymphocyte
C. Fibrinolysin III. Heparin
D. Antibodies IV. Eosinophils
V. Monocyte
The correct match is
A B C D
1) V I II IV
2) III I IV II
3) I III IV V
4) III II IV I
476). Match the following
List-I List-II
A. Thrombokinase I.Neutrophils
B. Fibrinolysin II.Bloodplatelets
C.Largest WBC III. Eosinophils
D. Abundant blood IV. Monocytes
cells V. Erythrocytes
The correct match is
A B C D
1) III II IV I
2) II III IV V
3) III II V IV
4) IV V II III
477. Study the following
formed elements nucleus function
i) neutrophils many nuclear phagocytic
lobes
ii) eosinophils 3-5 lobed phagocytic
iii) basophils irregular lobes inflammation
iv) monocytes kidney shaped phagocytic
which of the above are correct
1) i,ii,iii and iv 2) i, iii and iv only 3) ii , iii and iv only 4) ii and iii only
Plateletes
LEVEL - I
478) Some of the blood clotting factors are released by
1).Eosinophils 2).Platelets 3).Monocytes 4).Basophils
479) Which of the following are not considered as cells in mammals
1).WBC 2).RBC
3).Blood platelets 4).Megakaryocytes
480) Enucleated disc like cell fragments of the blood are
1) RBC 2) WBC
3) Blood platelets 4) Megakaryocytes
481) Life span of blood platelets is
1) 120 days 2) 30 days
3) 350 days 4) 10 days
482) Physical adaptation in people who live in high altitudes is
1) erythropenia 2) polycythemia
3) eosinophilia 4) anaemia
483) Megakaryocytes form
1) Neutrophils 2) Monocytes
3) Blood platelets 4) Lymphocytes
484) Following factor starts the process of blood
coagulation
1) Thrombin 2) Prothrombin
3) Thrombokinase 4) Fibrinogen
485) Stopping of bleeding is called
1) Homeostasis 2) Osmorgulation
3) Hemostasis 4) Haemophilis
LEVEL - II
486) Statement (S) : Concentration of plasma proteins is greater in the plasma than in the interstitial fluid
Reason (R) : Most of plasma proteins cannot escape through the capillaries because of their large size
Lymph
LEVEL - I
487) The middle man between blood and tissue is
1) Plasma 2) ECF
3) Lymph 4) Blood cells
LEVEL - II
488) Statement (S) : ECF acts as the actual middle
man between the blood and the tissues.
Reason (R) : ECF is in contact with cells and
supplies them with CO2 and collects O2 and
nutrients from them.
489). Study the following statements and choose the
correct one
I. Plasma proteins are responsible for osmotic
pressure of plasma
II. Blockage of alternate route for flow of ECF
into blood, decreases the speed of flow of
blood
III. The matrix of gristle is avascular
IV. Osseous tissue is vascular
1) All 2) Only II
3) Only IV 4) Only III
490). Read the following and select the correct
statements
i) most of the fluid of the blood is filtered from the capillaries near their arteriolar ends
ii) About 85% of fluid filtered out is returned to the capillaries near their venular ends by osmosis
iii) Extracellular fluid so called lymph finally enter the venous system by subclavian veins
1) All are correct
2) only i and ii correct
3) only ii and iii correct
4) only i and iii correct
Muscular Tissues
Skeletal muscle
•Muscle cells are mesodermal origin
•Muscles derived from ectoderm are iris muscles in the eye .
•Muscle spindles of skeleton muscles and Golgi tendon organs detect tensional differences and monitor muscle contraction
•Muscles usually attached to the bones occurs in the diaphragm, tongue, pharynx, and the begining of oesophagus are skeletal muscles.
•Skeletal muscle are striated and voluntary.
•Each skeletal muscle fibre is surrounded by a delicate layer called endomysium.
•A bundle of muscle fibres ( fascicle) is surrounded by a dense connective tissue layer called perimysium.
•A dense irregular connective tissue layer surrounding the whole muscle is called epimysium.
•Muscle attach to the bones by chord - like tendon or sheetlike aponeurosis.
•Tendon , aponeurosis are formed by extensions of endomysium , perimysium, epimysium.
•The site of attachment of tendon to a fixed bone is called the origin of muscle
•The site of attachement of tendon to a movable bone is called the insertion of muscle
•Muscle fibre of skeletal muscle is a long, cylindrical, multinucleated cell.
•Each fibre is formed by the fusion of emryonic mononucleated myoblasts.
•Skeletal muscle can undergo limited regeneration due to satellite cells.
•Satellite cells are inactive myoblasts but cells become activated, proliferated and fuse to form new skeletal muscle fibres.
Skeletal muscle
LEVEL - I
491). Connective tissue sheath enveloping the muscle is
1) epimysium 2) endomysium 3) perimysium 4) sarcolemma
492). Tendons are formed by
1) epimysium 2) endomysium 3) perimysium 4) all the above
493). The site of attachment of tendon to the immovable bone is
1) origin 2) insertion
3) epiphysis 4) diaphysis
494). The phosphogen in striped muscle is
1) Creatine phosphate
2) Arginine phosphate
3) Calcium phosphate
4) Adenosine Tri Phosphate
495). Striped muscles under go fatigue because
1) they contract slowly
2) contraction is very quick
3) they have dark and light bands.
4) in dark bands contract more
496). Encapsulated proprioceptor that detect tensional differences and monitor muscle contraction of skeletal muscles are
1) stretch receptors 2) muscle spindles
3) golgi tendon organs 4) 2 and 3
497). Golgi tendon organs of tendons are the
1) tango receptors 2) mechanoreceptors
3) encapsulated proprioceptors
4) stem cells of tendons
498). A sheet like structure that serves to attach the muscle to bone and other tissues is
1) tendon 2) ligament
3) aponeurosis 4) insertion
499). Satellite cells of skeletal muscle are located in the
1) basal lamina of endomysium
2) reticular lamina of perimysium
3) basal lamina of perimysium and endomysium
4) reticular lamina of epimysium
500). Voluntary striped muscle cells are
1) Spindle shaped with tapering ends
2) Long and cylindrical with blunt ends
3) Short and cylindrical with truncated ends
4) Uninucleate, nucleus is at the centre
501). The site of attachment of tendon to a movable
bone is called
1) Insertion of the muscle
2) Origin of the muscle
3) Intrinsic muscle
4) Synapse
502). Regeneration power is very limited for
1) Cardiac muscle
2) Smooth involuntary muscle
3) Striped involuntary muscles
4) Striped voluntary muscles
503). Following structures in muslces are capable of
receiving and conducting electric impulses
1) Sarcosome 2) Myofibrils
3) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
4) Cisternae
LEVEL - II
504). Statement (S) : Striped muscle is also called
skeletal muscle
Reason(R): It attaches the skeletal structure
505). Arrange the following layers of muscle in a correct sequence from out side to the inside
a) epimysium b) endomysium c) perimysium d) sarcoelmma
1) a - c- d- b 2) b- d- c- a
3) a - c- b - d 4) c- a- b- d
506). Arrange the following parts of musculoskeletal system in a correct order
a) movable bone b) insertion
c) fixed bone d) origin
1) c - d- b - a 2) b - d- a- c
3) c - a- b - d 4) d -c - a- b
507). Following are structures seen in the muscle arrange them from large to small size
a. myofilaments b. myofibres
c. Myofibrils d. Fasciculus
1) c-d-a-b 2) d-a-c-b
3) d-b-c-a 4) c-a-b-d
508). Read the following statements regarding muscles
I. Skeletal muscles show limited power of
regeneration
II. Striped and voluntary muscles are richly
vascular and are syncyitial
III. Skeletal muscles are richly vasular and are
fatigue quickly
Which of the above statements are correct
1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III
3) Only I and III 4) All are correct
Visceral muscle
•Smooth muscles are unstriated and involuntary
•Muscles located on the walls of visceral organs such as blood vessels, trachea, bronchi, stomach, intestine, urinary, bladder, etc.
•Iris and ciliary body of eye and arrector pili muscles of dermis are smooth muscle.
•Smooth muscle cells are fusiform.
•When smooth muscle contracts the nucleus has the apperance of a corkscrew.
•Thick and thin myofilaments are not regularly arranged hence smooth muscle fibres are unstriated.
•Skeletal muscles cells are arranged in bundles where as smooth muscles occurs in large sheets.
•Smooth muscle cells may remain contracted for long period without fatigue.
•Contraction of skeletal muscle is regulated by somatic nervous system where as smooth muscles is by autonomic nervous system.
•The muscle which have greater powers of regeneration are smooth muscles.
•New smooth muscle fibres can arise from stem cells called pericytes.
•Certain smooth muscle fibres, which can
divide can be seen in uterus .
Visceral muscle
LEVEL - I
509). The muscles in which Actin and myosin filaments are arranged irregularly
1) cardiac muscles 2) striped muscles
3) smooth muscles 4) biceps muscles
510). Arrector pilli muscles are
1) unstriped, involuntary2) striped, voluntary
3) unstriped, voluntary 4) striped, involuntary
511). Non visceral organ which consists of Visceral muscle is
1) iris 2) tongue
3) stomach 4) heart
512). Tissue repairing cells of smooth muscular tissue are
1) satellite cells 2) pericytes
3) myeloblasts 4) intercalated discs
513). When smooth muscles contract the nucleus has the apperence
1) wave 2) worm
3) fusiform 4) cork screw
514). Smooth muscle that can divide are found in
1) uterus 2) gut
3) ureters 4) epididymis
515). Identify the smooth muscles not present in the
visceral organs from the following
1) muscles present in the IRIS of eye
2) muscles present in the retina of skin
3) muscles present in the wall of urinary
bladder
4) muscles of tongue
516). Damaged smooth muscles can be regenerated
by the activity of
1) chondrocytes 2) pericytes
3) myeloblasts 4) reticulocytes
517). Considerable power of regeneration is seen in
1) smooth muscles
2) all involuntary muscles
3) striped involuntary muscles
4) striped voluntary muscles
518). Blood supply is not abundant in
1) smooth muscles 2) striped muscles
3) cardiac muscles 4) skeletal muscles
LEVEL - II
519). Statement (S) : Smooth muscle do not exhibit striations
Reason (R): Actin and myosin filaments are not regulary arranged
520). Statement (S) : Contractions and relaxations of sphincters are under the conscious control of the animal
Reason (R): Sphincters are made of voluntary muscles.
Cardiac muscle
•Cardiac muscles are striated and involuntary
•Cardiac muscles fibres are branched forming a network , present in the wall of heart.
•A cardiac muscle fibre is a short cylindrical cell with single centrally located nucleus ( rarely two nuclei)
•Mitochondira are more numerous in cardiac muscle than skeletal muscle fibre.
•Cardiac muscle fibre are joined end to end by transverse thickenings of plasma membrane called intercalated discs.
•Intercalated discs contain gap junctions and desmosomes.
•Ionic continuity between adjacent cells of cardiac muscle are due to gap junctions.
•Cardiac muscle acts as a functional syncytium due to gap junctions.
•Contraction of cardiac muscles is spontaneous, involuntary, vigorous, and rhythmic.
•Pace maker of heart formed by cardiac muscles.
•Function of pace makers is initiation of action potentials.
•Rhythm of cardiac muscle can be modified by autonomic nervous system and hormones like epinephrine.
• Muscles which have almost no regenerative capacity in adults are cardiac muscles.
LEVEL - I
521). Cardiac muslce fibres are joined end to end by transverse thickenings of plasma membrane are called
1) intercalated discs 2) intervertebral discs
3) gap junctions 4) desmosomes
522). Short, cylindrical usually uninucleated muscle fibres are
1) striated , voluntary 2) striated, involuntary
3) unstriated, involuntary 4) unstriated, voluntary
523). The characteristic feature of the muscle which has almost no regenerative capacity in adults
1) intercalated discs
2) uninucleated condition
3) striped myofibrils
4) corkscrew shaped nucleus
524). The muscles which forms functional syncytium are
1) striped muscle 2) unstriped muscle 3) cardiac muscle 4) only visceral muscle
525). The rate of contractions generated in Heart muscles are under the control of
1) SA Node 2) AV node
3) Autonomous nervous system
4) Peripheral nervous system
526. Which of the following of the intercalated discs provide ionic continuity between adjacent cells of cardiac muscle
1) tight junctions 2) desmosomes
3) gap junctions 4) gated channels
527). The functional significance of intercalated discs in cardiac muscle is
1) they generate the rhythm
2) they conduct the cardiac impulse
3) they stop stimulus
4) they activate the cells
528). Intercalated discs are present
1) between two smooth muscular cells
2) between two cells of striped muscles
3) at regular intervals of cardiac muscles
4) on either ends of bones
529). Cardiac muscles resemble the striated muscles
in having
1) distinct darker irregular transverse bands
occuring at regular intervals
2) structural syncytium
3) arrangement of contractile proteins in
alternate dark and light bands
4) voluntary action
530). Striped involuntary muscles occurs in
1) iris of eye 2) tongue
3) at the base of great blood vessels
4) limbs
531). Shorter myocytes with truncated ends are present in
1) visceral muscles 2) skeletal muscles
3) cardiac muscles 4) voluntary muscles
532). Cardiac muscle
1) fatigue slowly 2) does not fatigue
3) fatigue quickly 4) fatigue continuously
533). The rate of rhythmic contraction of heart is
regulated by
1) pace maker
2) central nervous system
3) automic nervous system only
4) autonomic nervous system and some
hormones
Level - II
534). Assertion(A): Guyton considered the cardiac
muscle fibre as a functional syncytium
Reason (R): In cardiac muscles the
contractions are initiated by a pace maker
535). Identify a correct statement from the following
regarding cardiac muscles fibres
I. Pericytes are useful to repair damaged
cardiac muscle fibres
II. Intercalated discs are present
III. Innervated by nerves from central nervous
system
IV. Actin and Myosin are irregularly arranged
1) II only 2) II and IV
3) I and III 4) I and IV
536). Read the following statements
I. Cardiac muscles contract more quickly than
the voluntary muscles
II. Without any exception, smooth muscles are
confined to visceral organs
III. Smooth muscles are present in sphincters
IV. Cardiac muscle fibres are branched
The correct combination
1) I and III 2) I,II and IV
3) III and IV 4) II and IV
537). Which of the following are true related to muscles
i) Muscles do not expand
ii) Fully developed muscle cells do not divide
iii) Iris muscle is originated from ectoderm
1) i, ii 2) i, iii 3) ii, iii 4) i,ii,iii
538). Contractile tissues have the following features
I) Mesodermal in origin
II) They contain stretch receptors
III) Rhythmic contractions are seen in them
IV) They do not fatigue during the life of the animal
Which of the above are characteristic of
sphincters ?
1) All the four
2) Only I, II and III
3) Only I, II, and IV
4) Only I, III, and IV
Cartilage
LEVEL - I
342) The matrix of cartilage is secreted by
1) chondrocytes 2) chondroblasts
3) osteoblasts 4)osteocytes
343) Gristle is derived from
1)ectoderm 2)mesoderm 3)endoderm 4)ecto-endodermal
344). The outer covering of gristle is
1) periosteum 2).perichondrium 3) endosteum 4).meninx
345). This part of cartilage receives direct blood supply
1) lacunae 2)chondrocytes 3) chondrin 4)perichondrium
346). onnective tissues are vascular but avascular connective tissue is
1) dense regular connective tissue
2) cartilage 3) bone
4) dense irregular connective tissue
347). More commonly the growth of cartilage is
1) interstitial growth 2) apical growth
3) appositional growth 4) extra cellular growth
348). The growth of cartilage resulting from the mitotic divisions and reactivation of preexisting chondrocytes is
1) interstitial growth 2) apical growth
3) appositional growth 4) extra cellular growth
349). Matrix of cartilage differs from matrix of bone in not having
1) collagen fibres 2) elastic fibres
3) lacunae 4) blood vessels
350). Growth of the gristle is promoted by
1) osteoblasts 2) chondrocytes
3) fibroblasts 4) perichondroblasts
351). Perichondrium covering the cartilage is made up of
1) irregular white fibrous tissue
2) yellow elastic tissue
3) regular white fibrous tissue
4) reticular connective tissue
LEVEL - II
352). The following are the statements about gristle.
I. It is semirigid and some what flexible supportive tissue, which can withstand compression and deformation forces that act on it
II). Cartilage draws nourishment from perichondrium
III) Lacunae present in the matrix enclose chodroblasts.
IV) Perichondroblasts promote the growth of cartilage
Choose the correct statements
1) I, II 2) II , IV
3) I, II, IV 4) I, II, III and IV
353). Statement (S) : Gristle draws nourishment from perichondrium
Reason (R) : Cartilage does not have blood vessels but peri-chondrium contains blood vessels
Hyaline Cartilage
LEVEL - I
354). Hyaline cartilage without perichondrium is present in
1) pubic symphysis 2) articular cartilage
3) costal cartilage 4) epiglottis
355). Costal cartilage is seen in
1) tips of long bones 2) centre of the sternum
3) between joints 4) ventral ends of ribs
356). The weakest cartilage is
1) hyaline cartilage 2) elastic cartilage
3) fibrous cartilage 4) calcified cartilage
357). Endoskeleton of embryos and bronchial rings are formed by
1) fibrous cartilage 2) hyaline cartilage
3) calcified cartilage 4) elastic cartilage
358). Bluish white translucent cartilage is found in
1) vocal cards 2) epiglottis
3) periosteum 4) coastal cartilage
359). The cartilage that supports larger branchioles is without
1) elastin fibres 2) collagen fibres
3) perichondrium 4) chondroblasts
360). Cartilage that provides strength and elasticity is found in
1) public symphysis 2) costal cartilage
3) eustachian tubes
4) embryonic skeleton of vertebrates
LEVEL - II
361). The following are the statements about Hyaline cartilage. Identify the correct statements.
I. It is light bluish - white and translucent
II. 1 to 8 Chondrocytes are enclosed in each Lacuna in the matrix
III. It is the strongest and least flexible of all types of cartilage
1) I only 2) II and III
3) I and III 4) I,II and III
362). Statement (S) :Hyaline cartilage is the weak est among all types of cartilage
Reason(R) : Very thin collagen fibres are present in its matrix
Elastic cartilage
LEVEL - I
363). The only cartilage with yellow fibers is
1) elastic cartilage 2) hyaline cartilage
3) fibrous cartilage 4) all the above
364). The cartilage present in epiglottis is
1) hyaline 2) fibrous
3) elastic 4) calcified
365). Yellow fibres of cartilage
1) made up of collagen
2) occur in bundles
3) arranged parallel to one another
4) have forked ends
LEVEL - II
366). The following are the statements about Elastic cartilage. Find the false statement.
I Elastic and collagen fibres are present in the matrix
II. It exhibits ability to regain the original shape after distortion
III. It lacks perichondrium in the adult
1) All 2) I 3) II 4) III
367). Assertion(A): Elastic cartilage exhibits high degree of resillience
Reason(R) : Elastic cartilage is the only type of cartilage which contains elastic fibres.
1) Both A and R are correct R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is correct, but R is not correct
4) Both A and B are not correct
368) Statement (S) : External ear lobe shows a high degree of resilience
Reason (R) : External ear lobe contains elastic cartilage which has elastic fibres
369) Statement (S) : External ear lobe shows flexibility and regains its shape after distortion.
Reason (R): External ear lobe is made of hyaline cartilage.
Fibrous cartilage
LEVEL - I
370). Matirx has a dense network of coarse collagen fibres in
1) elastic cartilage 2) fibrous cartilage
3) hyaline cartilage 4) calcified cartilage
371). Intervertebral discs are made-up of a cartilage called
1) nuclei pulposi 2) fibrous cartilage 3) elastic cartilage 4) hyaline cartilage
372). The strogest cartilage is without
1) perichondrium 2) collagen fibres
3) lacunae 4) chondrocytes
373). Gristle present in intervertebral discs is characterised by
1) Presence of yellow and white fibres widely
2) Absence of white fibres and perichondrium
3) Absence of lacunae and blood vessels
4) Absence of blood vessels, elastic fibres and perichondrium
LEVEL - II
374). The following are the statements about fibrous cartilage
I. It is an inelastic cartilage
II. Its matrix consists of very large number of bundles of elastic fibres
III. It is totally without blood capilaries and lacks perichondrium in the adult
Which of the above are correct
1) I and III 2) I and II
3) II and III 4) All
375). Statement (S) : Fibrous cartilage is the stron gest and least flexible of all types of cartilage
Reason (R) : Fibrous cartilage consists of very large number of bundles of collagen fibres in the matrix but elastic fibres are absent
Bone
Types of Bones
LEVEL - I
376. Irregular bones are
1) wrist and ankle bones 2) vertebrae
3) cranial bones 4) humerus
377. The swollen terminals of long bones are called
1) diaphysis 2) epiphysis
3) occipital condyles 4) shaft
378. Red bone marrow is present in
1) shaft of the bone 2) epiphysis
3) diaphysis 4) compact bone
379. Cells involved in the resorption and remodelling of bone tissue are
1) osteocytes 2) osteoblast
3) osteoclasts 4) chondrocytes
380. Appositition growths of cartilage results from the
1) maturation of chondocytes
2) differentiration of perichondrial cells
3) reactivation of chondrocytes
4) mitotic divisions of chondrocytes
381. Intramembranous ossification of mesenchyme occurs in the formation of
1) investing bones 2) replacing bones
3) sesamoid bones 4) cartilage bones
382. Short bones and long bones form good example for
1) investing bones 2) dermal bones
3) Cartilage bones 4) calcified cartilage
383. Patella (knee cap) form good example for the
1) flat bone 2) short bone
3) spongy bone 4) sesamoid bone
384. Marrow cavity of the bone is confined to the
1) Diaphysis 2) Metaphysis
3) Epiphysis 4) Zygapophysis
385. The region between diaphysis and epiphysis of bone is
1) Zygapophysis 2)Metaphysis
3) endosteum 4) periosteum
386. Bones can grow in thickness only by the
1) Appositional growth
2) super positional growth
3) interstitial growth
4) intramembranous ossification
387. Bones of cranium are
1) membranous bones and flat bones
2) dermal bones and flat bones
3) investing bones and irregular bones
4) short bones and cartilage bones
388. Appositional growth of bone resulting from the
1) maturation of osteoblasts
2) differentiation of periosteal cells
3) reactivation of osteocytes
4) inactivation of periosteocytes
389. Endochondral bones are formed due to ossification within the
1) hyaline cartilage 2) fibrous cartilage
3) elastic cartilage 4) calcified cartilage
390. Study of bone is called
1) chondrology 2) osteology
3) haematology 4) palaeontology
391. Irregular cancellous bones are
1) ribs 2) vertebrae
3) diaphysis 4) bones of cranium
392. Vertebrae of mammals are
1) irregular bones without haemopoietic tissue
2) flat bones without haemopoietic tissue
3) irregular bones with haemopoietic tissue
4) flat bones with haemopoietic tissue
393. Bones which are formed by membranous ossification of connective tissue of the dermis in skin are
1) endochondral bones 2) investing bones
3) cartilage bones 4) replacing bones
394. Flat bones among the following
1) cranial bones 2) vertebrae
3) carpals 4) radio-ulna
LEVEL - II
395. The following are the statements about Osseous tissue.
I. Bones formed from cartilage are replacing bones
II. Bones directly formed from mesenchyma are cartilage bones
III. Bones formed from tendons are called sesamoid bones
Which of the above are correct
1) I and II 2) I and III
3) II and III 4) All
396. Assertion(S) : Ends of vertebrae are considered as cancellous bones
Reason (R) : They have irregular matrix with irregular spaces filled with red bone marrow
397. Statement (S) : Membrane bones are also called as investing bones
Reason(R ): Membrane bones after their formation they sink deeper and form covering over the underlying Bones
398. Statement (S) :Bones does not grow in length in the adult
Reason(R ): The epiphyseal plate disappears leaving epiphyseal line
399. Correct sequence of various regions in a thigh bone of mammals is
a) diaphysis b) epiphysis c) metaphysis
1) b - c- a- c - b 2) c- a- b - a- c
3) a - b - c- a - b 4) c - b - a- b- a
Structure of compact bone
LEVEL - I
400. Haversian systems are found in
1) periosteum 2) gristle
3) compact bone 4) diaphysis
401. Two osteons are interconnected by
1) volkmans canal 2)canaliculi
3) haversian canal 4) lacunae
402. Haversian canal is connected to lacunae through
1) volkman`s canals 2) marrow cavity
3) osteoblasts 4) canaliculi
403. In a haversian system of bone the structures that run through the lamellae connect
1) lacunae of one concentric ring only
2) haversian canals of two osteons
3) haversian canals and volkmans canals
4) lacunae with one another and with the haversian canal
404. Diaphysis is the part of bone present between
1) two epiphyses
2) periosteum and endosteum
3) endosteum and marrow cavity
4) epiphysis and marrow cavity
405. The matix of bone is not constituted by
1) osteoblasts 2) concentric bone lamellae
3) osteocytes
4) perichondroblasts
406. Periosteum on the outer suface of bone is
1) irregular fibrous connective tissue sheath
2) regular fibrous connective tissue sheath
3) reticular connective tissue
4) yellow elastic connective tissue
LEVEL - II
407). Following are the statemetns about Osseous tissue
I. The structural unit of cancellous bone is osteon
II. Major portion of bone matrix in compact bone is calcium phosphate
III. Haversian canals of neighbouring haversian systems are connected by volkman`s canals
IV. Bones directly formed from dermis are called endochondral bones
The correct statements are
1) All 2) I and IV
3) II and III 4) III and IV
408). Statement (S) :The matrix of the bone is extremely hard with the great tensile and compressional strengths
Reason (R ): The concentric bone lamellae with large number of collagen fibres constitute the matrix of the bone
409). Statement (S) : All compact bones are mostly non- haemopoietic in function.
Reason (R): Red bone marrow is haemopoietic tissue.
410). Arrange the following layers/ parts in the cross section of compact bone of mammals from outside to inside
a) interstitial lamellae b) periosteum
c) endosteum
d) inner circumferential lamellae
e) outer circumferential lamellae
1) b -d - a- c- e 2) c - b- a- d- e
3) a - d- b- c - e 4) b- e- a- d - c
411). Th folllowing are the statements about Bone
I. Volkman`s canals are the transverse canals that connect Haversian canals
II. Osseous tissue is non-vascular
III. Bone forming cells are osteocytes.
The incorrect statements are
1) I and II 2) I and III
3) II and III 4) All
412). The following are the statements about bone
I. The bone marrow cavity is surrounded by endosteum
II. Bone forming cells are called osteoblasts.
III. Haversian and Volkman`s canals are present in the bone
Which of the above are correct
1) I and II 2) I and III
3) II and III 4) All the above
Chemical composition of bone
LEVEL - I
413) The major organic substance of the bone is
1) collagen 2) calcium phosphate
3) calcium carbonate 4) hydroxyapatite
414) Complex salt Hydroxyapatite of bone is formed by
1) Carbonates of calcium
2) Phosphates of calcium
3) Chondroitin - 4 -sulphate
4) Hyaluronic acid
Fluid Tissues - Blood
Plasma
LEVEL - I
415). The most abundant plasma protein is
1) fibrinogen 2) prothrombin
3) globulin 4) albumin
416) pH of blood plasma is
1) 4.7 2) 5.6 3) 7.4 4) 8.2
417). Study of blood is called
1) Osteology 2) Chondrology
3) Haematology 4) Angiology
418). Following serum proteins function as antibodies
1) Albumins 2) Globulins
3) Prothrombins 4) Fibrinogens
419). Oedema occurs due to
1) Accumulation of tissue fluid in the tissue space due to decrease in plasma proteins in capillaries
2) Accumulation of tissue fluid in the tissue spaces due to increase in plasma proteins in capillaries
3) Accumulation of tissue fluid in the tissue spaces due to increased re-entry of water into capillaries
4) Accumulation of the tissue fluid in capillaries due to decrease of proteins in tissue spaces
420). Immunoglobulins are
1) a - globulins 2) b - globulins
3) g - globulins 4) d - globulins
LEVEL - II
421). Statement (S) : Decrease in plasma proteins causes swelling of tissues called oedema.
Reason (R) : Decrease in plasma proteins results in increased reentry of water from the tissue fluid in to blood capillaries
Formed Elements
RBC
LEVEL - I
422). An increase in RBC number is
1) polycythemia 2) erythrocytopenia 3) leukemia 4) anaemia
423). The percentage of total blood volume occupied by RBC is called
1) buffycoat 2) haematocrit
3) haemostat 4) erythrocrit
424). If a sample of blood is centrifuged in a glass tube the layers formed from the bottom to top serially are
1) buffy coat, haematocrit and plasma
2) plasma, buffy coat and haemotocrit
3) haemotocrit, buffy coat and plasma
4) buffy coat, plasma and haematocrit
425). Buffycoat of a healthy person includes
1) 10% of blood volume
2) 100% of blood volume
3) 1% of blood volume
4) 5 % of blood volume
426). In the earliest stages of embryogenesis, blood cells arise from the
1) liver 2) spleen
3) bone marrow 4) yolk sac mesoderm
427). Advantage in the biconcave shape of RBC is that it provides
1) large surface to volume ratio
2) large volume to pressure ratio
3) large size to surface ratio
4) large size to volume ratio
428). Plasma memberane of RBC is permeable to
1) O2 and CO2 2) HCO3-
3) Cl- 4) All the above
429). RBC of mammals are produced in the following organs during embryonic development
1) liver and bone marrow
2) spleen and bone marrow
3) liver and spleen
4) liver, spleen and bone marrow
430). The destruction of RBC is called
1) haemostasis 2) haemolysis
3) homeostasis 4) erythrolysis
431). Vitamins required for the maturation of RBC
1) pyridoxine and cyanacobalamin
2) folic acid and biotin
3) cyanacobalamin and folacin
4) pantothenic acid and riboflavin
432). Which of the following haemopoietic organ does not produce leucocytes in adults
1) spleen 2) liver
3) lymph nodes 4) bone marrow
LEVEL - II
433). Statement (S) : Reticulocytes cells are present in haemopoietic tissues.
Reason (R): Reticular cells support frame work of hemopoitic tissue
434). Arrange the following haemopoitic organs/ tissues in a correct order from the earliest stage of embryonic development to the adult stage
a) liver and spleen b) bone marrow c) yolk sac mesoderm
1) a -c - b 2) c - a- b
3) c - b- a 4) b- c- a
WBC
LEVEL - I
435). Leucocytes which increase in number during helminthic infections and allergic reaction are
1) lymphocytes 2) eosinophils
3) neutrophils 4) monocytes
436). Polymorphic blood cells are
1) WBC 2) RBC
3) Thrombocytes 4) Platelets
437). Least number of WBC
1) eosinophils 2) neutrophils 3) monocytes 4) basophils
438). Vasodilators are secreted by
1) monocytes 2) neutrophils 3) basophils
4) all types of granulocytes
439). The microscopic police men are
1) lymphocytes 2) neutrophils 3) basophils 4) monocytes
440). Among WBC, spherical cells with spherical nucleus and scanty peripheral cytoplasm are the
1) lymphocytes 2) monocytes
3) basophils 4) eosinophils
441). Macrophages and histiocytes are modified
1) basophils 2) neutrophils 3) megakaryocytic cells 4) monocytes
442). Movement of WBC through the walls of the capillaries is called
1) leucocytosis 2) diapedesis
3) leucopedesis 4) haemopedesis
443). Abnormal increase in the number of leucocytes is called
1) leucopaenia 2) polycythemia
3) leucocytosis 4) leucocytopaenia
444). Non phagocytic cells are
1) histiocytes 2) basophils
3) acidophils 4) neutrophils
445). Basophils are comparable to
1) histiocytes 2) mast cells
3) plasma cells 4) lymphocytes
446). Nucleus of the largest and most motile leucocytes is
1) 3 to 5 lobed 2) reniformed
3) oval 4) bilobed
447). Clinical indication of parasitic infection is
1) leukemia 2) thrombocythemia
3) polycythemia 4) eosinophilia
448). Granules present in the granulocytes are
1) volutin granules, nissl granules
2) chromophilic granules, volutin granules
3) specific granules, azurophilic granules
4) haemozoin granules, nissi’s granules
449). In the cytoplasm small specific granules more abundant than azurophilic granules in
1) eosinophils 2) neutrophils
3) basophils 4) large granular lymphocytes
450). The specific granules are fewer and irregular in size and shape in
1) Neutrophils 2) eosinophils
3) basophils 4) large granular lymphocytes
451). Dead cells of the pus are
1) Neutrophils 2) basophils
3) eosinophils 4) large granular lymphocytes
452). Active phagocytes of the blood are
1) basophils 2) eosinophils
3) monocytes 4) neutrophils
453). Nucleus of the microscopic policeman of blood has
1) irregular lobes 2) Two - five lobes
3) no lobes 4) one lobe
454). The only type of leucocytes that return from the tissues back to blood after diapedesis are
1) basophils 2) neutrophils
3) lymphocytes 4) monocytes
455). Fibrinolysin which dissolves old blood clots in the circulating blood is produced by
1) Leucocytes in which cytoplasmic granules stain with eosin
2) Leucocytes which have a bean shaped nucleus
3) The structures that are fomed from megakaryocytes
4) Leucocytes which are called microscopic policeman
LEVEL - II
456). Statement (S) : Granulocytes are also called polymorphonuclear leucocytes
Reason (R) : Their nuclei occur in different shapes
457). Statement (S) : Heparin produced by basophils is an anticoagulant.
Reason (R): Heparin is also secreted by mast cells
458) Statement (S) : Acidophils increase in number during infections
Reason (R): Lymphocytes are phagocytic in function.
459). Statement (S) : Eosinophilia occurs at the time of infection or allergy
Reason (R) : Eosinophils produce fibrinolysin that dissolve old blood clots
460). Statement (S) : Basophils of blood are comparable to mast cells of connective tissue
Reason (R) : In injured tissues basophils secrete heparin, histamine and bradykinin
461). Statement (S) : Acidophils dissolve old blood clots present in the circulating blood
Reason (R) : Eosinophils produce fibrinol ysin.
462). Statement (S) : Neutrophils are called microscopic policemen.
Reason (R) : During infection neutrophils increase in number and engulf becteria by the process of phagocytosis and fight against infection.
463). Statement (S) : Monocytes are described as internal scavangers.
Reason(R) : Monocytes removed dead cells and toxic substances by phagocytosis
464). Arrange the following in descending order . according to their percentage in total count of leucocytes in blood
A. Acidophils B. Neutrophils
C. Lymphocytes D. Monocytes
E. Basophils
1) BCDAE 2) DCABE
3) EADCB 4) BDCAE
465). The correct sequence of WBC in relation to percentage of their occurrence is
1).Neutrophils - Basophils - Monocytes - eosinophils- Lymphocytes
2).Neutrophils- Lymphocytes- Monocytes - Eosinophils - Basophils
3).Basophils - lymphocytes- Monocytes- Neutrophils- eosinophils
4).Eosinophils- Lymphocytes -Basophils - Neutrophils-Monocytes
466). Arrange the following formed elements in a de scending order based on their number
a) thrombocytes b) neutrophils
c) erythrocytes d) eosinophils
e) basophils f) lymphocytes
g) monocytes
1) c - a- b- f- g- d- e
2) b - d- c- a - g- e- f
3) c - a- b - e- d- f- g
4) d - a- b- e- c- g- f
467). Arrange the following in descending order according to their percentages in the total leucocyte count of the blood
A. Basophils B. Neutrophils
C. Monocytes D. Lymphocytes
E. Acidophils
1)A-E-C-D-B 2) B-D-C-E-A
3) D-B-C-A-E 4) A-D-B-C-E
468). Identify the features of microscopic policemen
A. Nucleus is entire, non lobed
B. Most abundant WBC
C. Stainable with neutral dyes
D. They contain histamine
The correct combination is
1) A and B 2) B and C
3) C and D 4) B and D
469). Identify the features of internal scavengers
I. The largest agranulocytes
II. Stained with acidic dyes
III. Most abundant among WBC
IV. Reniform nucleus
1) I and IV 2) II and III
3) I and II 4) III and IV
470). The following are the statements about blood
I. The abundant blood cells in granulocytes are Neutrophils
II. Basophils are present in very less number in the blood
III. Acidophils are considered as internal scavangers
IV. The pH of blood plasma is 7.4
The correct statements are
1) II and III 2) II and IV
3) III and IV 4) I, II and IV
471). Identify a wrong statement from the following
1. Antigen and antibody complexes formed in the blood are removed by neutrophils
2. Monocytes are the largest WBC with reniform nucleus
3. Lymphocytes are with spherical nucleus and scanty cytoplasm.
4. Erythrocytes constitute about 90% of the total blood cells
472). Match the following
List -I List-II
A. Monocytes I. Secretes histamines and bradykinins
B. Basophils II. Most mobile and phagocytic agranulocytes
C. Lymphocytes III. Produce antibodies
D. Neutrophils IV. Phagocytic granulocytes
V. Engulf antigen antibody complexes
A B C D
1) IV II III I
2) II III V IV
3) IV I III II
4) II I III IV
473). Match the following
List-I List-II
A. Lymphocytes I. Microscopic
policemen
B. Monocytes II. Immunity
C.Neutrophils III.Internal scavangers
D. Eosinophils IV. Removal of antigen and antibody
complexes
The correct match is
A B C D
1) IV I III II
2) II III I IV
3) II I IV III
4) III II I IV
474). Match the following
List-I List-II
A. Monocytes I. Antibodies
B. Basophils II. Histiocytes
C. Blood platelets III. Mast cells
D. B-Lymphocytes IV. Thrombinase
The correct match is
A B C D
1) III II IV I
2) II III IV I
3) V IV III II
4) IV V II I
475). Match the following
List -I List-II
A. Anticoagulant I. Brandykinin
B. Vasodilator II. B-Lymphocyte
C. Fibrinolysin III. Heparin
D. Antibodies IV. Eosinophils
V. Monocyte
The correct match is
A B C D
1) V I II IV
2) III I IV II
3) I III IV V
4) III II IV I
476). Match the following
List-I List-II
A. Thrombokinase I.Neutrophils
B. Fibrinolysin II.Bloodplatelets
C.Largest WBC III. Eosinophils
D. Abundant blood IV. Monocytes
cells V. Erythrocytes
The correct match is
A B C D
1) III II IV I
2) II III IV V
3) III II V IV
4) IV V II III
477. Study the following
formed elements nucleus function
i) neutrophils many nuclear phagocytic
lobes
ii) eosinophils 3-5 lobed phagocytic
iii) basophils irregular lobes inflammation
iv) monocytes kidney shaped phagocytic
which of the above are correct
1) i,ii,iii and iv 2) i, iii and iv only 3) ii , iii and iv only 4) ii and iii only
Plateletes
LEVEL - I
478) Some of the blood clotting factors are released by
1).Eosinophils 2).Platelets 3).Monocytes 4).Basophils
479) Which of the following are not considered as cells in mammals
1).WBC 2).RBC
3).Blood platelets 4).Megakaryocytes
480) Enucleated disc like cell fragments of the blood are
1) RBC 2) WBC
3) Blood platelets 4) Megakaryocytes
481) Life span of blood platelets is
1) 120 days 2) 30 days
3) 350 days 4) 10 days
482) Physical adaptation in people who live in high altitudes is
1) erythropenia 2) polycythemia
3) eosinophilia 4) anaemia
483) Megakaryocytes form
1) Neutrophils 2) Monocytes
3) Blood platelets 4) Lymphocytes
484) Following factor starts the process of blood
coagulation
1) Thrombin 2) Prothrombin
3) Thrombokinase 4) Fibrinogen
485) Stopping of bleeding is called
1) Homeostasis 2) Osmorgulation
3) Hemostasis 4) Haemophilis
LEVEL - II
486) Statement (S) : Concentration of plasma proteins is greater in the plasma than in the interstitial fluid
Reason (R) : Most of plasma proteins cannot escape through the capillaries because of their large size
Lymph
LEVEL - I
487) The middle man between blood and tissue is
1) Plasma 2) ECF
3) Lymph 4) Blood cells
LEVEL - II
488) Statement (S) : ECF acts as the actual middle
man between the blood and the tissues.
Reason (R) : ECF is in contact with cells and
supplies them with CO2 and collects O2 and
nutrients from them.
489). Study the following statements and choose the
correct one
I. Plasma proteins are responsible for osmotic
pressure of plasma
II. Blockage of alternate route for flow of ECF
into blood, decreases the speed of flow of
blood
III. The matrix of gristle is avascular
IV. Osseous tissue is vascular
1) All 2) Only II
3) Only IV 4) Only III
490). Read the following and select the correct
statements
i) most of the fluid of the blood is filtered from the capillaries near their arteriolar ends
ii) About 85% of fluid filtered out is returned to the capillaries near their venular ends by osmosis
iii) Extracellular fluid so called lymph finally enter the venous system by subclavian veins
1) All are correct
2) only i and ii correct
3) only ii and iii correct
4) only i and iii correct
Muscular Tissues
Skeletal muscle
•Muscle cells are mesodermal origin
•Muscles derived from ectoderm are iris muscles in the eye .
•Muscle spindles of skeleton muscles and Golgi tendon organs detect tensional differences and monitor muscle contraction
•Muscles usually attached to the bones occurs in the diaphragm, tongue, pharynx, and the begining of oesophagus are skeletal muscles.
•Skeletal muscle are striated and voluntary.
•Each skeletal muscle fibre is surrounded by a delicate layer called endomysium.
•A bundle of muscle fibres ( fascicle) is surrounded by a dense connective tissue layer called perimysium.
•A dense irregular connective tissue layer surrounding the whole muscle is called epimysium.
•Muscle attach to the bones by chord - like tendon or sheetlike aponeurosis.
•Tendon , aponeurosis are formed by extensions of endomysium , perimysium, epimysium.
•The site of attachment of tendon to a fixed bone is called the origin of muscle
•The site of attachement of tendon to a movable bone is called the insertion of muscle
•Muscle fibre of skeletal muscle is a long, cylindrical, multinucleated cell.
•Each fibre is formed by the fusion of emryonic mononucleated myoblasts.
•Skeletal muscle can undergo limited regeneration due to satellite cells.
•Satellite cells are inactive myoblasts but cells become activated, proliferated and fuse to form new skeletal muscle fibres.
Skeletal muscle
LEVEL - I
491). Connective tissue sheath enveloping the muscle is
1) epimysium 2) endomysium 3) perimysium 4) sarcolemma
492). Tendons are formed by
1) epimysium 2) endomysium 3) perimysium 4) all the above
493). The site of attachment of tendon to the immovable bone is
1) origin 2) insertion
3) epiphysis 4) diaphysis
494). The phosphogen in striped muscle is
1) Creatine phosphate
2) Arginine phosphate
3) Calcium phosphate
4) Adenosine Tri Phosphate
495). Striped muscles under go fatigue because
1) they contract slowly
2) contraction is very quick
3) they have dark and light bands.
4) in dark bands contract more
496). Encapsulated proprioceptor that detect tensional differences and monitor muscle contraction of skeletal muscles are
1) stretch receptors 2) muscle spindles
3) golgi tendon organs 4) 2 and 3
497). Golgi tendon organs of tendons are the
1) tango receptors 2) mechanoreceptors
3) encapsulated proprioceptors
4) stem cells of tendons
498). A sheet like structure that serves to attach the muscle to bone and other tissues is
1) tendon 2) ligament
3) aponeurosis 4) insertion
499). Satellite cells of skeletal muscle are located in the
1) basal lamina of endomysium
2) reticular lamina of perimysium
3) basal lamina of perimysium and endomysium
4) reticular lamina of epimysium
500). Voluntary striped muscle cells are
1) Spindle shaped with tapering ends
2) Long and cylindrical with blunt ends
3) Short and cylindrical with truncated ends
4) Uninucleate, nucleus is at the centre
501). The site of attachment of tendon to a movable
bone is called
1) Insertion of the muscle
2) Origin of the muscle
3) Intrinsic muscle
4) Synapse
502). Regeneration power is very limited for
1) Cardiac muscle
2) Smooth involuntary muscle
3) Striped involuntary muscles
4) Striped voluntary muscles
503). Following structures in muslces are capable of
receiving and conducting electric impulses
1) Sarcosome 2) Myofibrils
3) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
4) Cisternae
LEVEL - II
504). Statement (S) : Striped muscle is also called
skeletal muscle
Reason(R): It attaches the skeletal structure
505). Arrange the following layers of muscle in a correct sequence from out side to the inside
a) epimysium b) endomysium c) perimysium d) sarcoelmma
1) a - c- d- b 2) b- d- c- a
3) a - c- b - d 4) c- a- b- d
506). Arrange the following parts of musculoskeletal system in a correct order
a) movable bone b) insertion
c) fixed bone d) origin
1) c - d- b - a 2) b - d- a- c
3) c - a- b - d 4) d -c - a- b
507). Following are structures seen in the muscle arrange them from large to small size
a. myofilaments b. myofibres
c. Myofibrils d. Fasciculus
1) c-d-a-b 2) d-a-c-b
3) d-b-c-a 4) c-a-b-d
508). Read the following statements regarding muscles
I. Skeletal muscles show limited power of
regeneration
II. Striped and voluntary muscles are richly
vascular and are syncyitial
III. Skeletal muscles are richly vasular and are
fatigue quickly
Which of the above statements are correct
1) Only I and II 2) Only II and III
3) Only I and III 4) All are correct
Visceral muscle
•Smooth muscles are unstriated and involuntary
•Muscles located on the walls of visceral organs such as blood vessels, trachea, bronchi, stomach, intestine, urinary, bladder, etc.
•Iris and ciliary body of eye and arrector pili muscles of dermis are smooth muscle.
•Smooth muscle cells are fusiform.
•When smooth muscle contracts the nucleus has the apperance of a corkscrew.
•Thick and thin myofilaments are not regularly arranged hence smooth muscle fibres are unstriated.
•Skeletal muscles cells are arranged in bundles where as smooth muscles occurs in large sheets.
•Smooth muscle cells may remain contracted for long period without fatigue.
•Contraction of skeletal muscle is regulated by somatic nervous system where as smooth muscles is by autonomic nervous system.
•The muscle which have greater powers of regeneration are smooth muscles.
•New smooth muscle fibres can arise from stem cells called pericytes.
•Certain smooth muscle fibres, which can
divide can be seen in uterus .
Visceral muscle
LEVEL - I
509). The muscles in which Actin and myosin filaments are arranged irregularly
1) cardiac muscles 2) striped muscles
3) smooth muscles 4) biceps muscles
510). Arrector pilli muscles are
1) unstriped, involuntary2) striped, voluntary
3) unstriped, voluntary 4) striped, involuntary
511). Non visceral organ which consists of Visceral muscle is
1) iris 2) tongue
3) stomach 4) heart
512). Tissue repairing cells of smooth muscular tissue are
1) satellite cells 2) pericytes
3) myeloblasts 4) intercalated discs
513). When smooth muscles contract the nucleus has the apperence
1) wave 2) worm
3) fusiform 4) cork screw
514). Smooth muscle that can divide are found in
1) uterus 2) gut
3) ureters 4) epididymis
515). Identify the smooth muscles not present in the
visceral organs from the following
1) muscles present in the IRIS of eye
2) muscles present in the retina of skin
3) muscles present in the wall of urinary
bladder
4) muscles of tongue
516). Damaged smooth muscles can be regenerated
by the activity of
1) chondrocytes 2) pericytes
3) myeloblasts 4) reticulocytes
517). Considerable power of regeneration is seen in
1) smooth muscles
2) all involuntary muscles
3) striped involuntary muscles
4) striped voluntary muscles
518). Blood supply is not abundant in
1) smooth muscles 2) striped muscles
3) cardiac muscles 4) skeletal muscles
LEVEL - II
519). Statement (S) : Smooth muscle do not exhibit striations
Reason (R): Actin and myosin filaments are not regulary arranged
520). Statement (S) : Contractions and relaxations of sphincters are under the conscious control of the animal
Reason (R): Sphincters are made of voluntary muscles.
Cardiac muscle
•Cardiac muscles are striated and involuntary
•Cardiac muscles fibres are branched forming a network , present in the wall of heart.
•A cardiac muscle fibre is a short cylindrical cell with single centrally located nucleus ( rarely two nuclei)
•Mitochondira are more numerous in cardiac muscle than skeletal muscle fibre.
•Cardiac muscle fibre are joined end to end by transverse thickenings of plasma membrane called intercalated discs.
•Intercalated discs contain gap junctions and desmosomes.
•Ionic continuity between adjacent cells of cardiac muscle are due to gap junctions.
•Cardiac muscle acts as a functional syncytium due to gap junctions.
•Contraction of cardiac muscles is spontaneous, involuntary, vigorous, and rhythmic.
•Pace maker of heart formed by cardiac muscles.
•Function of pace makers is initiation of action potentials.
•Rhythm of cardiac muscle can be modified by autonomic nervous system and hormones like epinephrine.
• Muscles which have almost no regenerative capacity in adults are cardiac muscles.
LEVEL - I
521). Cardiac muslce fibres are joined end to end by transverse thickenings of plasma membrane are called
1) intercalated discs 2) intervertebral discs
3) gap junctions 4) desmosomes
522). Short, cylindrical usually uninucleated muscle fibres are
1) striated , voluntary 2) striated, involuntary
3) unstriated, involuntary 4) unstriated, voluntary
523). The characteristic feature of the muscle which has almost no regenerative capacity in adults
1) intercalated discs
2) uninucleated condition
3) striped myofibrils
4) corkscrew shaped nucleus
524). The muscles which forms functional syncytium are
1) striped muscle 2) unstriped muscle 3) cardiac muscle 4) only visceral muscle
525). The rate of contractions generated in Heart muscles are under the control of
1) SA Node 2) AV node
3) Autonomous nervous system
4) Peripheral nervous system
526. Which of the following of the intercalated discs provide ionic continuity between adjacent cells of cardiac muscle
1) tight junctions 2) desmosomes
3) gap junctions 4) gated channels
527). The functional significance of intercalated discs in cardiac muscle is
1) they generate the rhythm
2) they conduct the cardiac impulse
3) they stop stimulus
4) they activate the cells
528). Intercalated discs are present
1) between two smooth muscular cells
2) between two cells of striped muscles
3) at regular intervals of cardiac muscles
4) on either ends of bones
529). Cardiac muscles resemble the striated muscles
in having
1) distinct darker irregular transverse bands
occuring at regular intervals
2) structural syncytium
3) arrangement of contractile proteins in
alternate dark and light bands
4) voluntary action
530). Striped involuntary muscles occurs in
1) iris of eye 2) tongue
3) at the base of great blood vessels
4) limbs
531). Shorter myocytes with truncated ends are present in
1) visceral muscles 2) skeletal muscles
3) cardiac muscles 4) voluntary muscles
532). Cardiac muscle
1) fatigue slowly 2) does not fatigue
3) fatigue quickly 4) fatigue continuously
533). The rate of rhythmic contraction of heart is
regulated by
1) pace maker
2) central nervous system
3) automic nervous system only
4) autonomic nervous system and some
hormones
Level - II
534). Assertion(A): Guyton considered the cardiac
muscle fibre as a functional syncytium
Reason (R): In cardiac muscles the
contractions are initiated by a pace maker
535). Identify a correct statement from the following
regarding cardiac muscles fibres
I. Pericytes are useful to repair damaged
cardiac muscle fibres
II. Intercalated discs are present
III. Innervated by nerves from central nervous
system
IV. Actin and Myosin are irregularly arranged
1) II only 2) II and IV
3) I and III 4) I and IV
536). Read the following statements
I. Cardiac muscles contract more quickly than
the voluntary muscles
II. Without any exception, smooth muscles are
confined to visceral organs
III. Smooth muscles are present in sphincters
IV. Cardiac muscle fibres are branched
The correct combination
1) I and III 2) I,II and IV
3) III and IV 4) II and IV
537). Which of the following are true related to muscles
i) Muscles do not expand
ii) Fully developed muscle cells do not divide
iii) Iris muscle is originated from ectoderm
1) i, ii 2) i, iii 3) ii, iii 4) i,ii,iii
538). Contractile tissues have the following features
I) Mesodermal in origin
II) They contain stretch receptors
III) Rhythmic contractions are seen in them
IV) They do not fatigue during the life of the animal
Which of the above are characteristic of
sphincters ?
1) All the four
2) Only I, II and III
3) Only I, II, and IV
4) Only I, III, and IV
INTRODUCTION
LEVEL - I
1. The simplest animal like organisms that exhibit protoplasmic grade of organization are the
1) unicellular protozoans
2) multi cellular parazoans
3) multi cellular eumetazoans
4) All eukaryotic organisms
2. Division of labour at a single cell level is seen in
1) Sponges 2) cnidarians
3) protozoans 4) chordates
3. The lowest level of organization in metazoans is
1) protoplasmic grade of organization
2) cellular grade of organization
3) tissue grade of organization
4) organ system grade of organization
4. Cellular grade of organization is seen in
1) sponges 2) protozoans
3) cnidarians 4) flatworms
5. Division of labour is seen among the cells in
1) protozoans 2) sponges
3) cnidarians 4) arthropods
6. Cells absent in sponges are
1) choanocytes, thesocytes, porocytes
2) nerve cells, sensory cells
3) pinacocytes, choanocytes
4) myocytes, sclerocytes
7. Multicellular animals without true tissues are
1) sponges 2) cnidarians
3) arthropods 4) annelids
8. Cells demonstrate division of labour but not strongly associated to perform a specific
collective function in
1) cellular grade of organization
2) subcellular grade of organization
3) tissue grade of organization
4) organ system grade of organization
9. Cells are aggregated into tissues but not assembled into organs in
1) Subcellular grade of organization
2) Diploblastic organization
3) Triploblastic organization
4) Cellular grade of organization
10. Highly specialized sensory cells and nerve cells which bring about higher level of coordination and integration is seen in
1) cellular grade of organization
2) tissue grade of organization
3) diploblastic grade of organization
4) triploblastic grade of organization
11. The first key transition in the animal body plan is the
1) evolution of bilateral symmetry
2) cephalization
3) development of coelom
4) evolution of tissues
12. The second key transition in the animal body plan is the
1) evolution of biradial symmetry
2) evolution of bilateral symmetry
3) development of coelom
4) evolution of spherical symmetry
13. Functional isolation of cells is seen in
1) subcellular level of organization
2) cellular level of organization
3) tissue level of organization
4) organs system level of organization
14. Diploblastic animals show
1) cellular grade of organization
2) protoplasmic grade of organization
3) tissue grade of organization
4) organ system grade of organization
15. Nerve cells and sensory cells first time formed in
1) Cellular grade of organization
2) Subcellular grade of organization
3) Diploblastic organization
4) Triploblastic organization
16. Animals exhibiting tissue grade of organization do not have
1) nerve cells 2) mesoglea
3) mesoderm 4) mesenteries
17. Mesoderm is formed in
1) Tissue grade of organization
2) Cellular grade of organization
3) Organ - system grade of organization
4) Sub cellular grade of organization
18. Evolution of this germlayer resulted in the structural complexity in organization
1) ectoderm 2) endoderm
3) mesoderm 4) gastrodermis
19. Acellular organisms have
1) protoplasmic grade of organization
2) cellular grade of organization
3) tissue grade of organization
4) organ system grade of organization
20). This layer is not present in all multicellular animals
1) Ectoderm 2) Mesoderm
3) Endoderm 4) Both 1 and 3
21). Sponges lack
1) Nerve cells 2) Sensory cells
3) Mesoderm 4) All the above
22) Which one of the following is very closely related to triploblastic animals?
1) They have three layers in the body wall 2) They have three primary germ layers
3) They have nerve cells and sensory cells
4) They show radial symmetry
LEVEL - IINOTE: Follow the options for Statement(S) and Reason(R) Type questions
1) Both S and R are correct R is the correct
explanation of S
2) Both S and R are correct but R is not
correct explanation of S
3) S is correct, but R is not correct
4) Both S and R are not correct
23). (S): In the cellular level of organization, the cells are functionally isolated
(R): Nerve cells and sensory cells are absent
24). (S): Cnidarians are called diploblastic animals
(R): They exhibit radial symmetry mainly.
25). (S):Triploblastic animals lead a more efficient way of life
(R):They have highly specialized sensory cells and nerve cells bringing higher level of coordination of different organs and organ systems
26). Only cellular level of organization is found in
1) Cnidarians 2) Sponges
3) Flatworms 4) Protozoans
27). The type of cells that appeared first time in diploblastic animals are
1).Choanocytes 2)Nerve cells
3). Gametes 4) Totipotent cells
SPHERICAL SYMMETRY
LEVEL - I
28. Homaxial apolar symmetry is
1) Spherical symmetry 2) Radial symmetry 3) Biradial symmetry 4) Pentaradial symmetry
29. These forms are best suited for floating and rolling
1) Spherical symmetrical 2) Radial symmetrical 3) Biradial symmetrical 4)Bilateral symmetrical
30. This type of symmetry is rare
1) Homoxial apolar symmetry 2) Monaxial heteropolar symmetry
3) Biradial symmetry 4) Bilateral symmetry
31. Following are statements regarding spherical symmetrical animals
1)They are spherical in shape 2)Organisms exhibiting spherical symmetry are rare
3) Generally they are terrestrial 4)They have only dorsal and ventral surface
Which of the above correct
1) 1 & 2 2) 2 & 3 3) 1 & 3 4) 1, 2 and 3
32. The type of symmetry in which body parts are arranged in a radiating fashion and they are ball like in form
1) Spherical symmetry
2) Radial symmetry
3) Asymmetry
4) Biradial symmetry
33. The symmetry that lacks anterior and posterior sides and has no polarity at all is called
1) Symmetrogenic 2) Spherical
3) Radial 4) Biradial LEVEL-II
34. Statement (S) :In Heliozoans, symmetry is spherical and their pseudopodia are mainly used for food collection
Reason (R) : Heliozoans are planktonic animals
RADIAL SYMMETRY
•Radial symmetry is also called monaxial heteropolar symmetry
•In radial symmetry the sensory and feeding structures are uniformly distributed around the body hence they can interact with their environment equally in all the directions.
•In radially symmetrical animals body is cylindrical (e.g.Hydra), or vase - like (sponges) or umbrella - shaped (e.g. jelly fish).
•In Radially symmetrical animals the principal axis is oral - aboral axis it is heteropolar
•Anterior, posterior ends and dorsal, ventral , lateral surfaces are not differentiated in radially symmetrical forms as well as spherically symmetrical forms
•Radial symmetry is found in some sponges and most of the cnidarians.
•Echinoderms are primarily bilateral animals ( their larvae are bilateral)
•Most of the echinoderms have secondarily become radial, exhibiting pentamerous radial symmetry in the adult stage.
RADIAL SYMMETRYLEVEL - I35. In this type of symmetry the animals acquired oral & aboral ends first
1) Spherical 2) Radial
3) Biradial 4) Bilateral
36. Which of the following exhibit two different types of symmetries in their life cycles
1) Starfishes
2) Heliozoans & radiolarians
3) Earthworms & insects
4) All invertebrates
37 Symmetry advantage to sessile organisms is
1) spherical symmetry 2) asymmetry
3) radial symmetry 4) bilateral symmetry
38. Sensory and feeding structures are uniformly distributed around the mouth is seen in
1) Spherically symmetrical animals
2) Radially symmetrical animals
3) Bilaterally symmetrical animals
4) Asymmetrical animals
39. Monaxial heteropolar symmetry
1) Spherical symmetry 2) Radial symmetry
3) Biradial symmetry 4) Bilateral symmetry
40. Animals which show primary radial symmetry, secondary radial symmetry respectively are
1) jelly fishes and ctenophores
2) sea anemones and ctenophores
3) cnidarians and echinoderms
4) gastropods and echinoderms
41. In ctenophores most of thebody parts are radially arranged but paired parts are the
1) tentacles 2) siphonoglyphs
3) statocysts 4) oral arms
42. The animals in which the principal axis of symmetry changes from the median sagittal plane to oral - aboral axis during their development is
1) Jelly fishes 2) Ctenophores
3) Echinoderms 4) Heliozonas
43. In cnidarians and ctenophores the oroaboral axis is
1) apolar 2) heteropolar
3) bipolar 4) multipolar
44. Biradial symmetry of Sea anemones has been derived from
1) Radial symmetry
2) Pentamerous radial symmetry
3) Bilateral symmetry
4) Spherical symmetry
45. Sea anemones with one siphonoglyph exhibit
1) Bilateral symmetry 2) Radial symmetry
3) Spherical symmetry 4) Biradial symmetry
46. Which of the symmetry is an advatage to sessile or slow moving or planktonic organisms
1) Spherical symmetry
2) Radial symmetry
3) Bilateral symmetry
4) Biradial symmetry
47. The principal axis is oral aboral axis in
1) Monaxial heteropolar symmetry
2) Homaxial apolar symmetry
3) Biradial symmetry
4) Bilateral symmetry
48. Homaxial Apolar symmetry is seen in
1) Hydrozoans 2) Heliozoans
3) Ctenophores 4) Schyphozoans
49. Monaxial Heteropolar symmetry is found in
1) Some sponges and most of cnidarians
1) Most of sponges and few cnidarians
3) All sponges and cnidarians
4) All sponges but no cnidarians
50. Pentamarous radial symmetry is seen in
1)Adult echinodermates.
2) Larval echinodermates.
3) Ctenophores 4) Coelenterats
51. Five planes of symmetry can be seen in
1) Echinodermate larvae
2) Adult echinoderms
3) Sea anemones 4) Adult gastropods
52. Animals which show primary radial symmetry, secondary radial symmetry respectively are
1) Jelly fishes and ctenophores
2) Sea anemones and ctenophores
3) Cnidarians and echinoderms
4) Gastropods and echinoderms
53. Larvae are bilaterally symmetrical, adults are pentamerous radially symmetrical in
1) Anthozoans 2) Ctenophores
3) Jelly fishes 4) Echinoderms
54. In which of the following Asymmetary is seen
1) Echinodermate larvae
2) Adult echinoderms
3) Sea anemones 4) Adult gastropods
LEVEL- II
55. (S): Hydra shows radial symmetry.(R): Hydra can be cut into identical halves along any plane passing through the centre
1)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false and R also false
56. Read the following and select the correct statement
I) Radially symmetrical animal can be cut into two antimeres along any plane passing through oro-aboral axis
II) The body of radially symmetrical animal may be elongated or umberlla shaped
III) One end of radially symmetrical body is oral and the other is aboral
1) I and III 2) II and III
3) I and II 4) I, II and III
Biradial symmetry
•The biradial type of symmetry of sea anemone seems to have been derived from the radial type primarily by the elongation of the mouth and associated parts
•Biradial symmetry has two planes of symmetry
•Ctenophores and most anthozonas exhibit biradial symmetry
•In ctenophores most of the body parts are radially arranged but the tentacles are paired
•A sea anemone with two siphonoglyphs exhibit biradial symmetry
•A sea anemone with one siphonoglyph exhibit radial symmetry
Biradial symmetry
LEVEL - I57. The plane passing at right angle to the
sagittal axis is called
1) Longitudinal 2) Transverse
3) Frontal 4) Dorso-ventral
58. Sea anemones with two siphonoglyphs exhibit
1) Bilateral symmetry 2) Radial symmetry
2) Spherical symmetry 4) Biradial symmetry
59. The long axis and the short axis of the mouths of sea anemones are
1) heteropolar 2) bipolar
3) apolar 4) multipolar
60. Biradial symmetry is seen in
1) Scyphozoans 2) Heliozoans
3) Ctenophores 4) Annelids
61. Two planes of symmetry can be seen in
1) Hydrozoans, and scyphozoans
2) Heliozoans and radiolarians
3) Ctenophores and Anthozoans
4) All cnidarians
62. In most of anthozoans the principal axis is
1) oro - aboral axis 2) median sagittal axis
3) transverse axis 4) antero posterior axis
63. Read the following:
i) Transverse plane of biradially symmetrical animals is short axis.
ii) A sea anemone can be cut into equal halves passing through frontal and transverse planes.
iii) Biradially symmetrical animals are intermediate between radial and bilateral groups choose the wrong option(s)
1) i only 2) i & iii
3) ii only 4) ii & iii
LEVEL - II
64. Statement (A) : Antimeres on either side of the plane are different from
antimeres on either side of the other plane in biradial symmetry
Reason (R ) : Body parts in the animals with biradial symmetry are arranged not only radially but also in pairs
1)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false and R also false
65. It is considered that due to the elongation of mouth along with associated structures radial symmetry has given rise to
1) Bilateral symmetry
2) Biradial symmetry
3) Trimerous radial symmetry
4) Pentamerous radial symmetry
Bilateral symmetry
LEVEL - I66. The symmetry with anterior, posterior
and dorsal and ventral sides is
1) Biradial 2) Bilateral
3) Radial 4) Spherical
67. Triploblastic phylum which does not show bilateral symmetry in adult stages is
1) Mollusca 2) Arthropoda
3) Cnidaria 4) Echinodermata
68. Which of the following animals move primarily in one direction
1) Spherical symmetrical animals
2) Radial symmetrical animals
3) Bilateral symmetrical animals
4) Biradial symmetrical animals
69. Cephalization is associated with
1) biradial symmetry 2) bilateral symmetry
3) pentamerous radial symmetry
4) radial symmetry
70. The symmetry in fish is
1) Spherical 2) Radial
3) Bilateral 4) Biradial
71. The plane passing from the middorsal line to midventral line through the principal axis is
1).Sagittal axis 2).Frontal plane 3).Transverse 4).Longitudinal
72. In bilaterally symmetrical animals the principal axis, sagittal axis and the transverse axis respectively are
1) heteropolar, heteropolar and apolar
2) heteropolar , apolar and heteropolar
3) apolar , heteropolar and apolar
4) heteropolar, apolar and apolar
73 Which of the following are secondarily asymmetrical
1) All sponges 2) Amoeba
3) Gastropods 4) Echinoderms
74. Which one of the following is the major advancement in animal evolution
1) Appearance of bilateral symmetry
2) Formation of coelom
3) Developemt of mouth
4) Development of brain
75. Protozoan which exhibits bilateral symmetry is
1) Amoeba 2) Actinophrys
3) Acanthometra 4) Giardia
76. Larvae are bilaterally symmetrical, adults are pentamerous radially symmetrical in
1) Anthozoans 2) Ctenophores
3)Jelly fishes 4)Echinoderms
77. The plane that divides bilaterally symmetrical animal into right and left halves is
1) transverse plane 2) sagittal plane
3) frontal plane 4) oblique plane
78. Bilateral symmetry is found in : [ 2004 ]1) Clathrina 2) Leucosolenia 3) Ophiopleuteus 4) Schypha
79. In understanding different types of symmetry, the term used as principal axis means[ 2007](1) An imaginary straight line joining two opposite points at the ends.
(2) An imaginary straight line joining the mid point at one end and the mid point at the opposite end (3)A flat area that runs through any axis.
(4)An animal having its body parts arranged in such a manner to exhibit symmetry.
80. Which among the following are bisected into two equal halves passing through the median sagittal plane of earthworm
1) Mouth, male and female genital openings
2) Spermathecal openings, female genital opening and dorsal pores
3) Mouth, female genital opening and dorsal pores
4) Nephridiopores, male and female genital openings
81. Except in Gastropods and Echinoderms, bilateral symmetry is essentially exhibited by
1) Diploblastic animals 2) Triploblastic animals
3) Stalked animals 4) Chordates
82. The symmetry in which definite dorsal, ventral and lateral sides have developed is
1) Bilateral 2) Biradial
3) Pentaradial 4) All the three
83. Bilateral symmetry of an animal is exhibited from the stage of
1) Oocyte 2) Ovum
3) Zygote 4) Gastrula
84. The grade that includes all the bilaterally symmetrical phyla is
1) Diploblastica 2) Schizocoelomata
3) Triploblastica 4) None of these
85. Body differentiation into head, concentration of nervous tissue into brain are the consequences of the symmetry called
1) Biradial 2) Bilateral
3) Radial 4) All the three
86. Rapid locomotory movements are a capability of the group
1) Bilateria 2) Protista
3) Schizocoelomata 4) Radiata
87. Perfect symmetry is found in the group
1) Spherical 2) Radial
3) Bilateral 4) None
SYMMETRY
LEVEL - II
NOTE: Follow the options for Statement(S) and Reason(R) Type questions1) Both S and R are correct R is the correct
explanation of S2) Both S and R are correct but R is not
correct explanation of S3) S is correct, but R is not correct
4) Both S and R are not correct
88. Statement (S):Asymmetrical snails are included under grade bilateria
Reason(R): Symmetry of an animal is determined by the symmetry of its embryonic stage, irrespective of its symmetry in the adult stages.
89. Statement (S): A free -moving bilaterally symmetrical metazoan has the advantages of the surrounding becoming aware of conditions in the surroundings during its locomotion.
Reason(R): These animals exhibit diploblastic condition
90). (S): No animal exhibits perfect symmetry.
(R): All animals are asymmetrical in their adult stages.
91). (S): Generally, spherically symmetrical animals are planktonic in habit .
(R): They are spherical in shape and are drifted by water currents easily.
92). (S): Hydra shows radial symmetry.
(R): Hydra can be cut into identical halves along any plane passing through the centre
93). (S): In radiata, all organs are arranged around the oro-aboral axis.
(R): These animals cannot be cut into two antimeres only in longitudinal plane.
94). (S): Triploblastic animals exhibit both biradial and bilateral symmetry
(R): Biradially symmetrical animals developed the third germ layer, mesoderm
95) (S): Sea anemones exhibit biradial symmetry.
(R): They can be cut into two antimeres along oro-aboral axis
96). (S): Adult echinoderms exhibit pentaradial symmetry.
(R): Bilaterally symmetrical, free swimming larval forms secondarily develop into pentaradial, adults.
97). (S):Bilaterally symmetrical animals are far more successful than animals having other types of symmetry.
(R): Bilaterally symmetrical animals are triploblastic .
98). (S):Bilaterally symmetrical animals can be cut into two antimeres in only median sagittal plane.
(R): All organs are arranged in pairs, equidistantly on either side of median sagittal plane.
99). S : Radially symmetrical animals can interact with their environment equally in all directions
R : In radially symmetrical animals the sensory and feeding structures are uniformly distributed around the bodies
100) S : Bilaterally symmetrical animals move from place to place more efficiently and more efficient in seeking food
R : Most of the bilaterally symmetrial animals exhibit cephalization
LEVEL - I
1. The simplest animal like organisms that exhibit protoplasmic grade of organization are the
1) unicellular protozoans
2) multi cellular parazoans
3) multi cellular eumetazoans
4) All eukaryotic organisms
2. Division of labour at a single cell level is seen in
1) Sponges 2) cnidarians
3) protozoans 4) chordates
3. The lowest level of organization in metazoans is
1) protoplasmic grade of organization
2) cellular grade of organization
3) tissue grade of organization
4) organ system grade of organization
4. Cellular grade of organization is seen in
1) sponges 2) protozoans
3) cnidarians 4) flatworms
5. Division of labour is seen among the cells in
1) protozoans 2) sponges
3) cnidarians 4) arthropods
6. Cells absent in sponges are
1) choanocytes, thesocytes, porocytes
2) nerve cells, sensory cells
3) pinacocytes, choanocytes
4) myocytes, sclerocytes
7. Multicellular animals without true tissues are
1) sponges 2) cnidarians
3) arthropods 4) annelids
8. Cells demonstrate division of labour but not strongly associated to perform a specific
collective function in
1) cellular grade of organization
2) subcellular grade of organization
3) tissue grade of organization
4) organ system grade of organization
9. Cells are aggregated into tissues but not assembled into organs in
1) Subcellular grade of organization
2) Diploblastic organization
3) Triploblastic organization
4) Cellular grade of organization
10. Highly specialized sensory cells and nerve cells which bring about higher level of coordination and integration is seen in
1) cellular grade of organization
2) tissue grade of organization
3) diploblastic grade of organization
4) triploblastic grade of organization
11. The first key transition in the animal body plan is the
1) evolution of bilateral symmetry
2) cephalization
3) development of coelom
4) evolution of tissues
12. The second key transition in the animal body plan is the
1) evolution of biradial symmetry
2) evolution of bilateral symmetry
3) development of coelom
4) evolution of spherical symmetry
13. Functional isolation of cells is seen in
1) subcellular level of organization
2) cellular level of organization
3) tissue level of organization
4) organs system level of organization
14. Diploblastic animals show
1) cellular grade of organization
2) protoplasmic grade of organization
3) tissue grade of organization
4) organ system grade of organization
15. Nerve cells and sensory cells first time formed in
1) Cellular grade of organization
2) Subcellular grade of organization
3) Diploblastic organization
4) Triploblastic organization
16. Animals exhibiting tissue grade of organization do not have
1) nerve cells 2) mesoglea
3) mesoderm 4) mesenteries
17. Mesoderm is formed in
1) Tissue grade of organization
2) Cellular grade of organization
3) Organ - system grade of organization
4) Sub cellular grade of organization
18. Evolution of this germlayer resulted in the structural complexity in organization
1) ectoderm 2) endoderm
3) mesoderm 4) gastrodermis
19. Acellular organisms have
1) protoplasmic grade of organization
2) cellular grade of organization
3) tissue grade of organization
4) organ system grade of organization
20). This layer is not present in all multicellular animals
1) Ectoderm 2) Mesoderm
3) Endoderm 4) Both 1 and 3
21). Sponges lack
1) Nerve cells 2) Sensory cells
3) Mesoderm 4) All the above
22) Which one of the following is very closely related to triploblastic animals?
1) They have three layers in the body wall 2) They have three primary germ layers
3) They have nerve cells and sensory cells
4) They show radial symmetry
LEVEL - IINOTE: Follow the options for Statement(S) and Reason(R) Type questions
1) Both S and R are correct R is the correct
explanation of S
2) Both S and R are correct but R is not
correct explanation of S
3) S is correct, but R is not correct
4) Both S and R are not correct
23). (S): In the cellular level of organization, the cells are functionally isolated
(R): Nerve cells and sensory cells are absent
24). (S): Cnidarians are called diploblastic animals
(R): They exhibit radial symmetry mainly.
25). (S):Triploblastic animals lead a more efficient way of life
(R):They have highly specialized sensory cells and nerve cells bringing higher level of coordination of different organs and organ systems
26). Only cellular level of organization is found in
1) Cnidarians 2) Sponges
3) Flatworms 4) Protozoans
27). The type of cells that appeared first time in diploblastic animals are
1).Choanocytes 2)Nerve cells
3). Gametes 4) Totipotent cells
SPHERICAL SYMMETRY
LEVEL - I
28. Homaxial apolar symmetry is
1) Spherical symmetry 2) Radial symmetry 3) Biradial symmetry 4) Pentaradial symmetry
29. These forms are best suited for floating and rolling
1) Spherical symmetrical 2) Radial symmetrical 3) Biradial symmetrical 4)Bilateral symmetrical
30. This type of symmetry is rare
1) Homoxial apolar symmetry 2) Monaxial heteropolar symmetry
3) Biradial symmetry 4) Bilateral symmetry
31. Following are statements regarding spherical symmetrical animals
1)They are spherical in shape 2)Organisms exhibiting spherical symmetry are rare
3) Generally they are terrestrial 4)They have only dorsal and ventral surface
Which of the above correct
1) 1 & 2 2) 2 & 3 3) 1 & 3 4) 1, 2 and 3
32. The type of symmetry in which body parts are arranged in a radiating fashion and they are ball like in form
1) Spherical symmetry
2) Radial symmetry
3) Asymmetry
4) Biradial symmetry
33. The symmetry that lacks anterior and posterior sides and has no polarity at all is called
1) Symmetrogenic 2) Spherical
3) Radial 4) Biradial LEVEL-II
34. Statement (S) :In Heliozoans, symmetry is spherical and their pseudopodia are mainly used for food collection
Reason (R) : Heliozoans are planktonic animals
RADIAL SYMMETRY
•Radial symmetry is also called monaxial heteropolar symmetry
•In radial symmetry the sensory and feeding structures are uniformly distributed around the body hence they can interact with their environment equally in all the directions.
•In radially symmetrical animals body is cylindrical (e.g.Hydra), or vase - like (sponges) or umbrella - shaped (e.g. jelly fish).
•In Radially symmetrical animals the principal axis is oral - aboral axis it is heteropolar
•Anterior, posterior ends and dorsal, ventral , lateral surfaces are not differentiated in radially symmetrical forms as well as spherically symmetrical forms
•Radial symmetry is found in some sponges and most of the cnidarians.
•Echinoderms are primarily bilateral animals ( their larvae are bilateral)
•Most of the echinoderms have secondarily become radial, exhibiting pentamerous radial symmetry in the adult stage.
RADIAL SYMMETRYLEVEL - I35. In this type of symmetry the animals acquired oral & aboral ends first
1) Spherical 2) Radial
3) Biradial 4) Bilateral
36. Which of the following exhibit two different types of symmetries in their life cycles
1) Starfishes
2) Heliozoans & radiolarians
3) Earthworms & insects
4) All invertebrates
37 Symmetry advantage to sessile organisms is
1) spherical symmetry 2) asymmetry
3) radial symmetry 4) bilateral symmetry
38. Sensory and feeding structures are uniformly distributed around the mouth is seen in
1) Spherically symmetrical animals
2) Radially symmetrical animals
3) Bilaterally symmetrical animals
4) Asymmetrical animals
39. Monaxial heteropolar symmetry
1) Spherical symmetry 2) Radial symmetry
3) Biradial symmetry 4) Bilateral symmetry
40. Animals which show primary radial symmetry, secondary radial symmetry respectively are
1) jelly fishes and ctenophores
2) sea anemones and ctenophores
3) cnidarians and echinoderms
4) gastropods and echinoderms
41. In ctenophores most of thebody parts are radially arranged but paired parts are the
1) tentacles 2) siphonoglyphs
3) statocysts 4) oral arms
42. The animals in which the principal axis of symmetry changes from the median sagittal plane to oral - aboral axis during their development is
1) Jelly fishes 2) Ctenophores
3) Echinoderms 4) Heliozonas
43. In cnidarians and ctenophores the oroaboral axis is
1) apolar 2) heteropolar
3) bipolar 4) multipolar
44. Biradial symmetry of Sea anemones has been derived from
1) Radial symmetry
2) Pentamerous radial symmetry
3) Bilateral symmetry
4) Spherical symmetry
45. Sea anemones with one siphonoglyph exhibit
1) Bilateral symmetry 2) Radial symmetry
3) Spherical symmetry 4) Biradial symmetry
46. Which of the symmetry is an advatage to sessile or slow moving or planktonic organisms
1) Spherical symmetry
2) Radial symmetry
3) Bilateral symmetry
4) Biradial symmetry
47. The principal axis is oral aboral axis in
1) Monaxial heteropolar symmetry
2) Homaxial apolar symmetry
3) Biradial symmetry
4) Bilateral symmetry
48. Homaxial Apolar symmetry is seen in
1) Hydrozoans 2) Heliozoans
3) Ctenophores 4) Schyphozoans
49. Monaxial Heteropolar symmetry is found in
1) Some sponges and most of cnidarians
1) Most of sponges and few cnidarians
3) All sponges and cnidarians
4) All sponges but no cnidarians
50. Pentamarous radial symmetry is seen in
1)Adult echinodermates.
2) Larval echinodermates.
3) Ctenophores 4) Coelenterats
51. Five planes of symmetry can be seen in
1) Echinodermate larvae
2) Adult echinoderms
3) Sea anemones 4) Adult gastropods
52. Animals which show primary radial symmetry, secondary radial symmetry respectively are
1) Jelly fishes and ctenophores
2) Sea anemones and ctenophores
3) Cnidarians and echinoderms
4) Gastropods and echinoderms
53. Larvae are bilaterally symmetrical, adults are pentamerous radially symmetrical in
1) Anthozoans 2) Ctenophores
3) Jelly fishes 4) Echinoderms
54. In which of the following Asymmetary is seen
1) Echinodermate larvae
2) Adult echinoderms
3) Sea anemones 4) Adult gastropods
LEVEL- II
55. (S): Hydra shows radial symmetry.(R): Hydra can be cut into identical halves along any plane passing through the centre
1)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false and R also false
56. Read the following and select the correct statement
I) Radially symmetrical animal can be cut into two antimeres along any plane passing through oro-aboral axis
II) The body of radially symmetrical animal may be elongated or umberlla shaped
III) One end of radially symmetrical body is oral and the other is aboral
1) I and III 2) II and III
3) I and II 4) I, II and III
Biradial symmetry
•The biradial type of symmetry of sea anemone seems to have been derived from the radial type primarily by the elongation of the mouth and associated parts
•Biradial symmetry has two planes of symmetry
•Ctenophores and most anthozonas exhibit biradial symmetry
•In ctenophores most of the body parts are radially arranged but the tentacles are paired
•A sea anemone with two siphonoglyphs exhibit biradial symmetry
•A sea anemone with one siphonoglyph exhibit radial symmetry
Biradial symmetry
LEVEL - I57. The plane passing at right angle to the
sagittal axis is called
1) Longitudinal 2) Transverse
3) Frontal 4) Dorso-ventral
58. Sea anemones with two siphonoglyphs exhibit
1) Bilateral symmetry 2) Radial symmetry
2) Spherical symmetry 4) Biradial symmetry
59. The long axis and the short axis of the mouths of sea anemones are
1) heteropolar 2) bipolar
3) apolar 4) multipolar
60. Biradial symmetry is seen in
1) Scyphozoans 2) Heliozoans
3) Ctenophores 4) Annelids
61. Two planes of symmetry can be seen in
1) Hydrozoans, and scyphozoans
2) Heliozoans and radiolarians
3) Ctenophores and Anthozoans
4) All cnidarians
62. In most of anthozoans the principal axis is
1) oro - aboral axis 2) median sagittal axis
3) transverse axis 4) antero posterior axis
63. Read the following:
i) Transverse plane of biradially symmetrical animals is short axis.
ii) A sea anemone can be cut into equal halves passing through frontal and transverse planes.
iii) Biradially symmetrical animals are intermediate between radial and bilateral groups choose the wrong option(s)
1) i only 2) i & iii
3) ii only 4) ii & iii
LEVEL - II
64. Statement (A) : Antimeres on either side of the plane are different from
antimeres on either side of the other plane in biradial symmetry
Reason (R ) : Body parts in the animals with biradial symmetry are arranged not only radially but also in pairs
1)Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false and R also false
65. It is considered that due to the elongation of mouth along with associated structures radial symmetry has given rise to
1) Bilateral symmetry
2) Biradial symmetry
3) Trimerous radial symmetry
4) Pentamerous radial symmetry
Bilateral symmetry
LEVEL - I66. The symmetry with anterior, posterior
and dorsal and ventral sides is
1) Biradial 2) Bilateral
3) Radial 4) Spherical
67. Triploblastic phylum which does not show bilateral symmetry in adult stages is
1) Mollusca 2) Arthropoda
3) Cnidaria 4) Echinodermata
68. Which of the following animals move primarily in one direction
1) Spherical symmetrical animals
2) Radial symmetrical animals
3) Bilateral symmetrical animals
4) Biradial symmetrical animals
69. Cephalization is associated with
1) biradial symmetry 2) bilateral symmetry
3) pentamerous radial symmetry
4) radial symmetry
70. The symmetry in fish is
1) Spherical 2) Radial
3) Bilateral 4) Biradial
71. The plane passing from the middorsal line to midventral line through the principal axis is
1).Sagittal axis 2).Frontal plane 3).Transverse 4).Longitudinal
72. In bilaterally symmetrical animals the principal axis, sagittal axis and the transverse axis respectively are
1) heteropolar, heteropolar and apolar
2) heteropolar , apolar and heteropolar
3) apolar , heteropolar and apolar
4) heteropolar, apolar and apolar
73 Which of the following are secondarily asymmetrical
1) All sponges 2) Amoeba
3) Gastropods 4) Echinoderms
74. Which one of the following is the major advancement in animal evolution
1) Appearance of bilateral symmetry
2) Formation of coelom
3) Developemt of mouth
4) Development of brain
75. Protozoan which exhibits bilateral symmetry is
1) Amoeba 2) Actinophrys
3) Acanthometra 4) Giardia
76. Larvae are bilaterally symmetrical, adults are pentamerous radially symmetrical in
1) Anthozoans 2) Ctenophores
3)Jelly fishes 4)Echinoderms
77. The plane that divides bilaterally symmetrical animal into right and left halves is
1) transverse plane 2) sagittal plane
3) frontal plane 4) oblique plane
78. Bilateral symmetry is found in : [ 2004 ]1) Clathrina 2) Leucosolenia 3) Ophiopleuteus 4) Schypha
79. In understanding different types of symmetry, the term used as principal axis means[ 2007](1) An imaginary straight line joining two opposite points at the ends.
(2) An imaginary straight line joining the mid point at one end and the mid point at the opposite end (3)A flat area that runs through any axis.
(4)An animal having its body parts arranged in such a manner to exhibit symmetry.
80. Which among the following are bisected into two equal halves passing through the median sagittal plane of earthworm
1) Mouth, male and female genital openings
2) Spermathecal openings, female genital opening and dorsal pores
3) Mouth, female genital opening and dorsal pores
4) Nephridiopores, male and female genital openings
81. Except in Gastropods and Echinoderms, bilateral symmetry is essentially exhibited by
1) Diploblastic animals 2) Triploblastic animals
3) Stalked animals 4) Chordates
82. The symmetry in which definite dorsal, ventral and lateral sides have developed is
1) Bilateral 2) Biradial
3) Pentaradial 4) All the three
83. Bilateral symmetry of an animal is exhibited from the stage of
1) Oocyte 2) Ovum
3) Zygote 4) Gastrula
84. The grade that includes all the bilaterally symmetrical phyla is
1) Diploblastica 2) Schizocoelomata
3) Triploblastica 4) None of these
85. Body differentiation into head, concentration of nervous tissue into brain are the consequences of the symmetry called
1) Biradial 2) Bilateral
3) Radial 4) All the three
86. Rapid locomotory movements are a capability of the group
1) Bilateria 2) Protista
3) Schizocoelomata 4) Radiata
87. Perfect symmetry is found in the group
1) Spherical 2) Radial
3) Bilateral 4) None
SYMMETRY
LEVEL - II
NOTE: Follow the options for Statement(S) and Reason(R) Type questions1) Both S and R are correct R is the correct
explanation of S2) Both S and R are correct but R is not
correct explanation of S3) S is correct, but R is not correct
4) Both S and R are not correct
88. Statement (S):Asymmetrical snails are included under grade bilateria
Reason(R): Symmetry of an animal is determined by the symmetry of its embryonic stage, irrespective of its symmetry in the adult stages.
89. Statement (S): A free -moving bilaterally symmetrical metazoan has the advantages of the surrounding becoming aware of conditions in the surroundings during its locomotion.
Reason(R): These animals exhibit diploblastic condition
90). (S): No animal exhibits perfect symmetry.
(R): All animals are asymmetrical in their adult stages.
91). (S): Generally, spherically symmetrical animals are planktonic in habit .
(R): They are spherical in shape and are drifted by water currents easily.
92). (S): Hydra shows radial symmetry.
(R): Hydra can be cut into identical halves along any plane passing through the centre
93). (S): In radiata, all organs are arranged around the oro-aboral axis.
(R): These animals cannot be cut into two antimeres only in longitudinal plane.
94). (S): Triploblastic animals exhibit both biradial and bilateral symmetry
(R): Biradially symmetrical animals developed the third germ layer, mesoderm
95) (S): Sea anemones exhibit biradial symmetry.
(R): They can be cut into two antimeres along oro-aboral axis
96). (S): Adult echinoderms exhibit pentaradial symmetry.
(R): Bilaterally symmetrical, free swimming larval forms secondarily develop into pentaradial, adults.
97). (S):Bilaterally symmetrical animals are far more successful than animals having other types of symmetry.
(R): Bilaterally symmetrical animals are triploblastic .
98). (S):Bilaterally symmetrical animals can be cut into two antimeres in only median sagittal plane.
(R): All organs are arranged in pairs, equidistantly on either side of median sagittal plane.
99). S : Radially symmetrical animals can interact with their environment equally in all directions
R : In radially symmetrical animals the sensory and feeding structures are uniformly distributed around the bodies
100) S : Bilaterally symmetrical animals move from place to place more efficiently and more efficient in seeking food
R : Most of the bilaterally symmetrial animals exhibit cephalization
KEY
INTRODUCTION
1) 1 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1 5) 2 6) 2 7) 1 8) 1 9) 2 10) 4 11) 4 12) 2 13) 2 14) 3 15) 3 16) 3 17) 3 18) 3 19) 1 20) 2 21) 4 22) 2 23) 1 24) 2 25) 1 26) 2 27) 2
SPHERICAL SYMMETRY
28) 1 29) 1 30) 1 31) 1 32) 1 33) 2 34) 2
RADIAL SYMMETRY 35) 2 36) 1 37) 3 38) 2 39) 2 40) 3 41) 1 42) 3 43) 2 44) 1 45) 2 46) 2 47) 1 48)2 49) 1 50) 1 51) 2 52) 3 53) 4 54) 4 55) 3 56) 4
Biradial symmetry
57) 2 58) 4 59) 3 60) 3 61) 3 62) 1 63) 3 64) 1 65) 2
Bilateral symmetry
66) 2 67) 4 68) 3 69) 2 70) 3 71) 1 72) 1 73) 3 74) 1 75) 4 76) 4 77) 2 78) 3 79) 2 80) 3 81) 2 82) 1 83) 3 84) 3 85) 2 86) 1 87) 4 88) 1 89) 3
SYMMETRY
90) 3 91) 1 92) 1 93) 3 94) 4 95) 1 96) 1 97) 2 98) 1 99) 1 100) 1
INTRODUCTION
1) 1 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1 5) 2 6) 2 7) 1 8) 1 9) 2 10) 4 11) 4 12) 2 13) 2 14) 3 15) 3 16) 3 17) 3 18) 3 19) 1 20) 2 21) 4 22) 2 23) 1 24) 2 25) 1 26) 2 27) 2
SPHERICAL SYMMETRY
28) 1 29) 1 30) 1 31) 1 32) 1 33) 2 34) 2
RADIAL SYMMETRY 35) 2 36) 1 37) 3 38) 2 39) 2 40) 3 41) 1 42) 3 43) 2 44) 1 45) 2 46) 2 47) 1 48)2 49) 1 50) 1 51) 2 52) 3 53) 4 54) 4 55) 3 56) 4
Biradial symmetry
57) 2 58) 4 59) 3 60) 3 61) 3 62) 1 63) 3 64) 1 65) 2
Bilateral symmetry
66) 2 67) 4 68) 3 69) 2 70) 3 71) 1 72) 1 73) 3 74) 1 75) 4 76) 4 77) 2 78) 3 79) 2 80) 3 81) 2 82) 1 83) 3 84) 3 85) 2 86) 1 87) 4 88) 1 89) 3
SYMMETRY
90) 3 91) 1 92) 1 93) 3 94) 4 95) 1 96) 1 97) 2 98) 1 99) 1 100) 1
ANIMAL ORGANISATION
LOCOMOTION AND REPRODUCTION IN PROTOZOA
Locomotion:
*Protozoans are not stremelined to minimize the pressure drag
*Viscous drag is dueto the water molecules attached to the surface
*pressure drag is dueto the difference of pressure between two ends
*Viscous drag is more important for protozoans because of their small size
*Streamlined body has more surface area dueto which more water molecule are attached to surface
Which causes more viscous drag
*The locomotary organells that are usefull for locomotion and feedin in protozoa ---- pseudopodia and
cilia
*Psedopodia are present in the classes rhizopodea and actinopodea of the super class sarcodina
*The flagellate having pseudopodia is ---- Mastigamoeba
*Blunt finger like ,tubular pseudopodia with ecto and endoplasms are---Lobopodia (Amoeba &
Entamoeba)
*Slender filamentous pseudopodia with pointed tips , tapering base to tip ,having branches (sometimes) without the formation of networks and with only ecto plasm are----Filopodia(Euglypha & Lecithium)
*Filamentous ,branched pseudopodia with networks,feeding as primary function ,locomotion as
secondary function are----Reticulopodia or rhizopodia or myxopodia (Foraminiferans---Elphidium &
Globigerina)
*Filamentous pseudopodia in protozoans ------ Reticulopodia & Filopodia
*Filamentous pseudopodia that do not form networks---- Filopodia
*Filamentous pseudopodia that form networks ----- Reticulopodia
*Fine needle like pseudopodia radiating from the surface of the body with central axial rod (which is surrounded by granular and adhesive cytoplasm) and with food collection as primary function are---Axopodia or Actinopodia(Heliozoans –actinosphaerium and Actinophrys , Radiolarians—Collozoum)
*Axoneme(long stiff axial filament ) of flagellum arises from---- basal granule
*Basal granule is derived from---centriole
NUMBER OF FLAGELLA IN DIFFERENT MASTIGOPHORANS
*One ----- Trypanosoma
*Two ------ Euglena and Ceratium
* Four ------- Trichomonas
*Four pairs ------- Giardia
*Many ------ Trichonympha
*The total number of microtubules in flagellum (9+2) is ----- 20
*The total number of microtubules in basal granule is --- 27
*The total number of microtubules in both flagellum and basal granules collectively is--- 29
*The peripheral doublets are surrounded by an outer membranous sheath called ---protoplasmic sheath
* Protoplasmic sheath is the extension of ----- plasmamembrane
*The lateral appendages are ---- Flimmers (5nm thick ,solid) , Mastigonemes (20nm thick ,tubular)
*Basal granule is a cyllindrical body formed by the ----- 9 peripheral triplets
*basal body is connected to theplasma membrane or nucleus by---1 or more rootlets or microtubules or
both
*The structures that can pull the flagellum or cilium or change their orientation are---rootlets
*Unlike pantonematic flagellum pantacronematic flagellum has --- Terminal Filament
*Unlike acronematic flagellum pantonematic flagellum has --- Lateral Appendages
*Unlike anematic flagellum acronematic flagellum has --- Terminalfilament
*Euglena and Astasia ----- stichonematic flagellum
*Peranema and Monas ----- Pantonematic flagellum
*Chlamydomonas and Polytoma ---- acronematic flagellum
*Urcoelus ----- Pantacronematic flagellum
*Chilomonas and Cryptomonas ----- Anematic flagellum
*Holotrich (cilia all over the body , primitive organisms) --- Paramecium
*Peritrich (cilia confined to specific regions ,advanced organisms) --Vorticella (have peristomial cilia only)
*Kinety --- Longitudinal row of kinetosome +Kinetodesmos(kinetodesmal fibrils)+kinetodesmata
*Motorium is located at -- Cytopharynx
*the movement of cilia is controlled and co-ordinated by -- Neuromotor system
*Undular movement is possible by -- Flagella
*Pendular movement is possible by -- Cilia
*Undulating membranes and cirri (compound ciliary organelles) are formed by -- Cilia
*Flagella and Cilia -- Undulopodia (Hyman) as they cause progression by beating
*a flagellum pushes the fluid medium at right angles to the surface of its attachment
*The sites for ATPase activity ---- Dynein arms
*Undulations from base to tip --- Pushing force(propeller of a boat)
*undulations from tip to base ---- Pulling force(propeller of a aeroplane)
*if the flagellum bends to one side and shows a wave like movement from the base to tip,the organism moves laterally in the opposite direction.
*When the undulations are spiral ,they cause rotation of the organism in the opposite direction which is called gyration.
Reproduction:
*The cilate that can perform longitudinal binaryfission is -- Vorticella
*cytostome is funnel like and cytopharynx(gullet) is flask like
*A photoreceptor that is associated with flagellum in Euglena ---Paraflagellar body
*The structure close to cytopharynx is --- Stigma
*Binaryfission also occurs in ---Encysted form
*after the completion of the longitudinal binaryfission in euglena the two old flagella are retained by one daughter individual and the two new flagella are formed afresh in another daughter individual.
*oralgroove in Paramecium ---- Vestibule +buccal cavity
*during transverse binaryfission in Paramecium oralgroove dissapers at the beginning and reappears after karyokinesis.
*Proter retains the cytopharynx of the parent and opisth forms a new one.
*Protozoans are not stremelined to minimize the pressure drag
*Viscous drag is dueto the water molecules attached to the surface
*pressure drag is dueto the difference of pressure between two ends
*Viscous drag is more important for protozoans because of their small size
*Streamlined body has more surface area dueto which more water molecule are attached to surface
Which causes more viscous drag
*The locomotary organells that are usefull for locomotion and feedin in protozoa ---- pseudopodia and
cilia
*Psedopodia are present in the classes rhizopodea and actinopodea of the super class sarcodina
*The flagellate having pseudopodia is ---- Mastigamoeba
*Blunt finger like ,tubular pseudopodia with ecto and endoplasms are---Lobopodia (Amoeba &
Entamoeba)
*Slender filamentous pseudopodia with pointed tips , tapering base to tip ,having branches (sometimes) without the formation of networks and with only ecto plasm are----Filopodia(Euglypha & Lecithium)
*Filamentous ,branched pseudopodia with networks,feeding as primary function ,locomotion as
secondary function are----Reticulopodia or rhizopodia or myxopodia (Foraminiferans---Elphidium &
Globigerina)
*Filamentous pseudopodia in protozoans ------ Reticulopodia & Filopodia
*Filamentous pseudopodia that do not form networks---- Filopodia
*Filamentous pseudopodia that form networks ----- Reticulopodia
*Fine needle like pseudopodia radiating from the surface of the body with central axial rod (which is surrounded by granular and adhesive cytoplasm) and with food collection as primary function are---Axopodia or Actinopodia(Heliozoans –actinosphaerium and Actinophrys , Radiolarians—Collozoum)
*Axoneme(long stiff axial filament ) of flagellum arises from---- basal granule
*Basal granule is derived from---centriole
NUMBER OF FLAGELLA IN DIFFERENT MASTIGOPHORANS
*One ----- Trypanosoma
*Two ------ Euglena and Ceratium
* Four ------- Trichomonas
*Four pairs ------- Giardia
*Many ------ Trichonympha
*The total number of microtubules in flagellum (9+2) is ----- 20
*The total number of microtubules in basal granule is --- 27
*The total number of microtubules in both flagellum and basal granules collectively is--- 29
*The peripheral doublets are surrounded by an outer membranous sheath called ---protoplasmic sheath
* Protoplasmic sheath is the extension of ----- plasmamembrane
*The lateral appendages are ---- Flimmers (5nm thick ,solid) , Mastigonemes (20nm thick ,tubular)
*Basal granule is a cyllindrical body formed by the ----- 9 peripheral triplets
*basal body is connected to theplasma membrane or nucleus by---1 or more rootlets or microtubules or
both
*The structures that can pull the flagellum or cilium or change their orientation are---rootlets
*Unlike pantonematic flagellum pantacronematic flagellum has --- Terminal Filament
*Unlike acronematic flagellum pantonematic flagellum has --- Lateral Appendages
*Unlike anematic flagellum acronematic flagellum has --- Terminalfilament
*Euglena and Astasia ----- stichonematic flagellum
*Peranema and Monas ----- Pantonematic flagellum
*Chlamydomonas and Polytoma ---- acronematic flagellum
*Urcoelus ----- Pantacronematic flagellum
*Chilomonas and Cryptomonas ----- Anematic flagellum
*Holotrich (cilia all over the body , primitive organisms) --- Paramecium
*Peritrich (cilia confined to specific regions ,advanced organisms) --Vorticella (have peristomial cilia only)
*Kinety --- Longitudinal row of kinetosome +Kinetodesmos(kinetodesmal fibrils)+kinetodesmata
*Motorium is located at -- Cytopharynx
*the movement of cilia is controlled and co-ordinated by -- Neuromotor system
*Undular movement is possible by -- Flagella
*Pendular movement is possible by -- Cilia
*Undulating membranes and cirri (compound ciliary organelles) are formed by -- Cilia
*Flagella and Cilia -- Undulopodia (Hyman) as they cause progression by beating
*a flagellum pushes the fluid medium at right angles to the surface of its attachment
*The sites for ATPase activity ---- Dynein arms
*Undulations from base to tip --- Pushing force(propeller of a boat)
*undulations from tip to base ---- Pulling force(propeller of a aeroplane)
*if the flagellum bends to one side and shows a wave like movement from the base to tip,the organism moves laterally in the opposite direction.
*When the undulations are spiral ,they cause rotation of the organism in the opposite direction which is called gyration.
Reproduction:
*The cilate that can perform longitudinal binaryfission is -- Vorticella
*cytostome is funnel like and cytopharynx(gullet) is flask like
*A photoreceptor that is associated with flagellum in Euglena ---Paraflagellar body
*The structure close to cytopharynx is --- Stigma
*Binaryfission also occurs in ---Encysted form
*after the completion of the longitudinal binaryfission in euglena the two old flagella are retained by one daughter individual and the two new flagella are formed afresh in another daughter individual.
*oralgroove in Paramecium ---- Vestibule +buccal cavity
*during transverse binaryfission in Paramecium oralgroove dissapers at the beginning and reappears after karyokinesis.
*Proter retains the cytopharynx of the parent and opisth forms a new one.